It's not possible to tell from only that much information.
When you throw a rock up, its acceleration is the acceleration of gravity from
the moment it leaves your hand until it hits the ground. But its velocity is
upward some time, downward some time, and zero at the top.
Yes...acceleration is the rate of change of velocity with time.....therefore when velocity is zero..definitely acceleration is zero
This is not exactly true; at an instant in time the acceleration can be non-zero while the velocity is zero. However, this would change the velocity to non-zero after any amount of time.
An example of this is when you throw a ball into the air: at it's highest point, the velocity is zero (it changes from going upward to going downward, passing through zero for an instant). However the acceleration is downward the entire time.
Yes, but only if the instantaneous velocity remains zero during the time inerval. If you are speaking of average velocity over an interval, all bets are off.
No. When you throw an object in the air, it stops at the top before it begins to fall.
No. Acceleration is the change of velocity. If velocity is constant, at any speed, acceleration is zero.
Acceleration means change in velocity. So when it's zero, that means velocity
doesn't change, meaning in turn that it's constant ... constant speed in a
straight line.
The average acceleration from zero is the final velocity divided by the amount of time to reach that velocity.
the acceleration does not change.
"Acceleration" means change of velocity. If velocity is constant, then acceleration is zero.
if acceleration is <0 and velocity =0 then you got the handbrake on
Zero acceleration means that the velocity doesn't change. It doesn't mean that there is no velocity.
Since the derivative of velocity is acceleration, the answer would be technically 'no'. Here is why: v = 0 v' = 0 = a Or in variable form... v(x) = x v(0) = 0 v'(0) = 0 = a You can "trick" the derivative into saying that v'(x) = 1 = a (since the derivative of x = 1) and then stating v'(0) = 1 = a... but that is not entirely correct. Acceleration is a change over time and is measured at more then one point (i.e. the acceleration of this body of matter is y from time 1 to 5) unless using derivatives to form the equation of the acceleration line/curve. If an object has a constant acceleration of 1, then the velocity is constantly increasing over that time. Using the equation discussed above and looking at acceleration over time, at 0 seconds, acceleration is 0 and so is velocity, but from 0-1 seconds acceleration is 1 and velocity is 1 as well. 0-2 seconds, acceleration is 1, but velocity would be 2 (at the end of 2 seconds).
It doesn't. If acceleration is zero, that just means that velocity isn'tchanging ... the motion is in a straight line at a constant speed.
"Acceleration" means change of velocity. If velocity is constant, then acceleration is zero.
if acceleration is <0 and velocity =0 then you got the handbrake on
Not at all. Zero acceleration just means that the velocity is not changing ...the motion is in a straight line at a consgtant speed.
It's not. If you speed is constant (but not zero), then your velocity won't be zero, either.You may be confusing this with the following: If your VELOCITY (not your speed) is constant, then your ACCELERATION is zero. Acceleration refers to how quickly velocity changes, so if velocity doesn't change at all, acceleration is zero.
No it cannot. It is either one or the other. For constant velocity, acceleration must be 0, meaning there is no acceleration happening here. If there is constant acceleration, then the velocity is constantly changing.
Assuming that your units of velocity are in units/second Acceleration = (velocity 2 - velocity 1) / time Acceleration = (4.9 - 0) / 3 Acceleration =1.63 *With correct significant figures the answer is 2
Yes.
When a pendulum reaches its maximum elongation the velocity is zero and the acceleration is maximum
Zero acceleration means that the velocity doesn't change. It doesn't mean that there is no velocity.
Since the derivative of velocity is acceleration, the answer would be technically 'no'. Here is why: v = 0 v' = 0 = a Or in variable form... v(x) = x v(0) = 0 v'(0) = 0 = a You can "trick" the derivative into saying that v'(x) = 1 = a (since the derivative of x = 1) and then stating v'(0) = 1 = a... but that is not entirely correct. Acceleration is a change over time and is measured at more then one point (i.e. the acceleration of this body of matter is y from time 1 to 5) unless using derivatives to form the equation of the acceleration line/curve. If an object has a constant acceleration of 1, then the velocity is constantly increasing over that time. Using the equation discussed above and looking at acceleration over time, at 0 seconds, acceleration is 0 and so is velocity, but from 0-1 seconds acceleration is 1 and velocity is 1 as well. 0-2 seconds, acceleration is 1, but velocity would be 2 (at the end of 2 seconds).
Acceleration is the rate of change of velocity; without knowing the change in velocity between t=0 and t=3, the acceleration cannot be worked out.
Yes it can.