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Q: What objections does Germany raise to the treaty of Versailles?
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What did Treaty of Versailles overlook?

Because as germany was held guilty 4 tha 1st world war he had to pay the planty of sum due to this the economic conditon of germany started falling dawn.. . . . So there was raise of single dictatorship ane the raise of adolf hitler


What are 3 causes to the holocaust?

its because adolf hitlor hated the Jews and becasue he blamed them for all the trouble occurring in Europe and he wanted to build a land of one raise.


How Nazis encouraged the Germans to hate the Jews?

Well, they used common tactics seen throughout the entire 20th century, (most notably the Chinese civil war and America during the Vietnam war to raise support for the War against the NVA). The idea is that, if you tell someone enough lies again and again, they will eventually believe it. Hitler and the Nazi's repeated this and used the people's fear and humiliation to their advantage. The fear being communism, (many Jews were blamed for this) and the humiliation of the Treaty of Versailles. The treaty of Versailles was by many considered a huge humiliation, especially due to the nationalistic values at the time, and so if one blamed it on a certain group of people, they would be able to channel all that hatred into that one group, no matter how misleading or inaccurate it may be.


What law did Caesar break when he raised a small army to help defend Roman Asia?

Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.Caesar did not have the authority to raise an army at the time. Only someone holding the rank of praetor and above, could legitimately raise an army.


Did the army sell bonds to raise money during the revolutionary war?

The Government Sold The Bonds To Raise Money ;pp

Related questions

What did Treaty of Versailles overlook?

Because as germany was held guilty 4 tha 1st world war he had to pay the planty of sum due to this the economic conditon of germany started falling dawn.. . . . So there was raise of single dictatorship ane the raise of adolf hitler


What is a word meaning to raise annoying petty objections quibble or carp?

Nitpick


What are 3 causes to the holocaust?

its because adolf hitlor hated the Jews and becasue he blamed them for all the trouble occurring in Europe and he wanted to build a land of one raise.


What does Germany grow in fields and raise on farms?

dead guys


What are 3 reasons the weimar weimar republic was a weak governmental system?

There are many reasons that the Weimar Republic was a weak one. Here are a few of them.At the end of WW 1, the German Kaiser William II had to flee Germany and a new, democratic government was formed called Weimar Republic. At its onset the republic was weak because there had been no heritage in Germany and in the former German States of any sort of democratic regime at all. To add to its troubles the republic was responsible for signing the Treaty of Versailles. This onerous treaty added to the discontent of most Germans. The new German government was forced by the Treaty to pay war reparations and cede colonies and territory. This, along with the small army permitted by the Treaty, added more discontent. Instead of raising taxes to pay war debts and other extraordinary debts, the government did not raise taxes, but chose instead to "print paper money" causing a drastic problem with inflation.Only counting the above mentioned reasons, the new republic was weak and to a large extent unpopular.


How did World War 1 contribute to the outbreak of World War 2?

If you try and link just these two wars, your history will be inaccurate. All prior events are reflected in later historical events. For example, the Napoleonic wars ultimately led to the Prussian/Franco war. The VERY mild terms handed down by Germany/Prussia were hated by the French who lusted for revenge, which they got in 1919. George Washington warned the US against involvement in these interminable wars between the various European states. Unfortunately, his sage advise was ignored in the twentieth century. But, yes, of course, the two world wars are linked, mainly due to the harsh terms given to Germany by the French/British. I can think of no similar terms of such brutality handed out by one major power to another over the last three hundred years of world history. For example, the British defeated the French in wars of the 1760s and 1810s, both of which were 'world wars' themselves. In both wars, the French ceded some colonies, a little treasure, and little or no European territory. In neither defeat were the home territories of the French occupied, nor were their people subjected to mass rape, terror, arson or pillage. Likewise, when Germany defeated France in 1870, their terms were very mild. They demanded no (as in ZERO) colonies. They did not pillage or loot France itself. The only territory they took were the provinces of Alsace (German speaking, having been taken by Napoleon 60 years prior) and about 40% of Lorraine. The indemnity allocated was significant and in that respect somewhat similar to that of 1919. Contrast these three historically recent examples with what happended to Germany in 1919 and 1945. In 1919, 100% of German colonies were taken away. 19% of the land in Europe was stripped away and given to hostile neighbors. Most of the people in these lands were German speaking. Additionally Germany had their navy appropriated and sunk. Their army was restricted. They were forbidden all sorts of weapons. Their indemnity was large. All patents (of which Germany had many of great value) were taken. 1945 was even worse. German had no more colonies to give up, but again, about 20% of the remaining national territory was stripped away. There was no real money left in the country so an indemnity was worthless. Instead all the allies, especially the Russians, looted the country of anything they could move. Millions of women were raped, millions of men enslaved for up to ten years, millions of civilians were murdered. The country was divided and placed under military rule for decades. German was banned from almost all international organizations for many years. Thus, harsh terms will always lead to another war, unless, as in the case of 1945, they are SO harsh, that retaliation by the defeated power is hopeless.


What Positive things Hitler did?

After the Treaty of Versailles( Which ended WWI) Germany had many problems. First and formost their economy was in VERY bad condition. They were desperate for someone. Hitler was that someone. He pulled them out of depression and in the 30s Germany lead the world in arts,organic foods, public school conditions,sports and enginering. While he was a anti-semetic murderer he technically improved Germany before WWII.


What were Adolf Hitler's aims?

To destroy the Treaty of VersaillesTo unite all German speaking peopleTo create living space (Lebensraum)To rearmNazi Soviet pactto return germany colonies


How Nazis encouraged the Germans to hate the Jews?

Well, they used common tactics seen throughout the entire 20th century, (most notably the Chinese civil war and America during the Vietnam war to raise support for the War against the NVA). The idea is that, if you tell someone enough lies again and again, they will eventually believe it. Hitler and the Nazi's repeated this and used the people's fear and humiliation to their advantage. The fear being communism, (many Jews were blamed for this) and the humiliation of the Treaty of Versailles. The treaty of Versailles was by many considered a huge humiliation, especially due to the nationalistic values at the time, and so if one blamed it on a certain group of people, they would be able to channel all that hatred into that one group, no matter how misleading or inaccurate it may be.


When contesting the appointment of independent administrator do you need a lawyer?

Not necessarily, you can simply state your objections to the judge. If he believes they are valid he will take them under consideration when considering his ruling. However, if you intend to raise points of law, which you believe mitigate against the appointment, then it might be worthwhile to have an attorney handle it for you.


When was the peace treaty ending World War 2 signed?

There was no single pact signed to end the war. In Asia, the Japanese forces signed 'unconditional' surrender terms with MacArthur, recorded with that famous picture, aboard the battleship Missouri, in Tokyo harbor. That ended the formal fighting between American and Japanese forces but some incidental fighting continued for years. Additionally the USSR did not sign a treaty for many years after....I don't recall those details. The actual peace treaty between the U.S. and Japan was signed in 1951. In Europe it was more confusing. Germany collapsed economically and militarily in the spring of 1945. Hitler was dead. The government essentially non existent. There was a military occupation set up by the victors. Treaties ending the fighting were not signed for about ten years although all organized fighting ended almost immediately upon the surrender via Doenitz in May 1945, who, in theory, was the head of the rump German armed forces and government. Italy had surrended to the Allies in 1943 and then changed sides to fight Germany, taking many casualties in the process. The end of that formal combat situation was in 1945 also but when an actual treaty was signed, I do not know. Other Axis nations also changed sides when the end of Germany was in sight. Finland, her economy collapsing, withdrew from organized fighting in late 1944 and then declared war on Germany. So did Romania. Bulgaria never actually declared war on any Allied nation that I know of so there was never any treaty to sign. Hungary collapsed in 1945 along with Germany. Basically a formal state of war existed between Germany and the various Allied nations until about 1949 although obviously all combat operations had ended many years previously. By 1954, Stalin was dead, the German government reorganized (east and west), and the German economy stabilized and growing. POWs, both German and Japanese were just being released about this time in large numbers by the Soviets. Although I've never seen a full reckoning I suspect some nations never actually signed a treaty ending the war with Germany - for examples, perhaps Brazil or Costa Rica. Peace treaties with the minor Axis powers were signed in 1947. See the link below. [It's important not to confuse a ceasefire or surrender with a peace treaty. The one stops the fighting; the other sorts out things like the new frontiers.] A treaty between the (main) Allies and Germany was signed on 12 September 1990 just before the re-unification of Germany. This was essential in order to make Germany's new frontiers definitive. It was agreed between the four main Allies on the one hand and the two German states on the other, with the proviso that it wouldn't become fully effective unless ratified by the new, united Germany. This treaty is regarded by Germans as equivalent to a peace treaty. A comprehensive treaty would raise all kinds of problems in respect of countries that were British and French colonies in WW2 but are now independent. Already in 1947 the Allies issued a solemn statement to the effect that they were no longer at war with Germany. See link below.


What was the cost of building the Palace of Versailles and how did it contribute to France's economic decline?

1) The cost to build the palace of Versailles is believed to have been about $100 million. The exact cost cannot be determined; Louis XIV is believed to have had the records destroyed.2) Versailles was an excellent example of the foolishness of some of Louis XIV's policies. Versailles was an enormous expense and strain on an economy already weakened by war. The cost of such lavishness was high, and the government was never able to raise enough money by taxation to pay for it. Attempts to introduce taxes from which no one would be exempt, even the nobles and privileged wealthy, were failures. Remembering earlier problems, the crown did not want to press hard on groups who counted their exemption from taxation as a mark of prestige. Unable to tax the wealthy or to raise new revenues for their armies, the government was periodically forced to repudiate the national debt. This action made borrowing difficult and expensive.