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Before 1920, most taxes were assessed on property. When all taxes are based on property, it makes sense to restrict voting to property owners. When non-property owners are voting on property TAXES, the non-owner is has no reason not to vote for higher taxes that he won't be paying.

Since the advent of the income tax, even people who don't own property are paying taxes, so the voter rolls needed to be expanded. Here in 2014, the disconnect between paying taxes and voting is becoming bad again.

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Q: What reasoning supported tying the right to vote property ownership?
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