Asked in World War 2History of the United StatesWW1 Allied Forces
What was the reason for the United States' policy of non-involvement in European Affairs?
July 17, 2015 5:43PM
The question probably stems back to Wilsonian involvement in foreign affairs, meaning that Woodrow Wilson had a non-aggressive policy. He wanted there to be a war of no winners. Partly because if there were no winners there would be no conflicts later on. Secondly as time went on and economics were dropping shamefully there was no way to fight a costly battle during World War II. Prior to this Roosevelt and the other cabinet leaders didn't overly worry about Hitler breaking the treaty of Versailles. Partly because most leaders believed it to be unfair. That is why there were prepartions made to send over Young, the pres of GE at the time, to create a plan to reduce the principle and interest for Germany. Which would allow Germany to internally rebuild its economy and open up different trading lines, hopefully with the U.S. The U.S. didn't believe that Hitler would become so powerful a leader. Even with remilitarizing the rhineland and retaking the Sudatenland no one was worried. Sudatenland is what is now Checkoz. As Kennedy said prior to WWII, who really cares if check. is regained by Germany no one wants to defend it anyway. The only thing that would keep the U.S. involved is the lend-lease act which would allow the president to lend war supplies, i.e. foodstuffs and what not to parties involved mainly Britain and France.