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When a person convey their rights to a property can they sue for the property later on?
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
No. Not unless they can prove fraud, legal incapacity or duress in a lawsuit, and win.
No. Not unless they can prove fraud, legal incapacity or duress in a lawsuit, and win.
No. Not unless they can prove fraud, legal incapacity or duress in a lawsuit, and win.
No. Not unless they can prove fraud, legal incapacity or duress in a lawsuit, and win.
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Wiki User
∙ 11y agoNo. Not unless they can prove fraud, legal incapacity or duress in a lawsuit, and win.
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What did Locke consider to be natural rights?
Life, Liberty, and property property is later changed to the prusuit of happiness
Do heirs spouses has to sign the deed to sell estate property?
Laws vary based on the jurisdiction. In most, the spouse has to sign their rights in the property away. This prevents them from clouding title to the property later on.
How did the magna carta influence later political documents?
it claimed that all taxation was a violation of natural rights to property
What is fee simple with a joint tenancy?
Fee simple with a joint tenancy is essentially complete ownership of property by more than 1 person. The term "fee simple", also called "fee simple absolute", means that the owner owns the property outright with right to use it during his lifetime and convey it by deed during his life or by will upon his death. The terminology is from old English and was used to distinguish full ownership from less than full ownership. Full ownership does not refer to percentage of ownership. It refers to the right to use it during life (a present interest) and to dispose of it later on (the future interest). Another type of ownership back then was called "fee tail". This meant that the owner could convey the property only to members of his blood family, or "tail". If he conveyed it to anyone else, the person that sold it to the owner could take the property back. This obviously limited the owners rights and so he did not have simple absolute rights to the property. A fee simple can be owned jointly by two or more persons. As long as no one else has any present right and as long as there are no restrictions on future conveyances, the interest in the property is still fee simple.
How can the state take a nursing home patient property?
if a letter of afidavit was filed with the state for someones small estate and later you find out their were unknown mineral rights can the state still have rights to any royalties..
If a non-married property owner later puts a friend on a Quit Claim Deed as a joint tenant with right of survivorship is it required to have their signature so that you can remove them from the deed?
You can't remove them from the deed. They own an interest in the property and if you die they will own 100% automatically. You cannot sell or mortgage without their signature. If you want your property back in your name alone the co-owner must convey their interest back to you voluntarily by signing a deed.
Does the Mormon church pay property taxes for their poor elderly members to gain the property later?
No. The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints (the "Mormon" church) does give financial assistance to needy members, but paying someone's property taxes does not mean that you own their property or have any rights to it whatsoever.
Does avista utilities have easment rights when they install a pole on your property?
Your particular question is probably best answered through a call to Avista at 1-800-227-9187, but here's a few examples of how the rights work. Depending on the location and circumstance Avista holds various rights for its facilities. Easements are taken on private property where other rights do not exist. For example we have facilities: · where there is a dedicated utility strip in the plat for the property: · we provide service to the property and we are allowed to be on the property under the state tariff; · we are on a property within the dedicated street right of way as we have franchise agreements with the local government entity Some easements are implied, as the facilities were installed to serve a property, under the tariff and the property was later split, our facilities are covered by the original situation to serve the whole property; in addition other situations which allow for our facilities on a property absent an easement. -Dan Kolbet, Avista Utilities
What type of deed is needed for an acre for acre swap of equal value?
A quit claim deed could be used. A Quit Claim Deed is a deed that transfers without warranty whatever interest or title a grantor may have at the time the conveyance is made It conveys to a Buyer only what the Seller actually owns, if anything, and provides no guarantee from the Seller to the Buyer that the Seller has any interest in the property to convey. The rule to follow for a person accepting a quit claim deed is "Buyer beware". If it later turns out that the Seller's rights to use the property are encumbered by another person's interest in the property, the Buyer is out of luck and has no recourse against the Seller. A Different Opinion: I have seen similar conveyances executed by two simultaneous deeds. Each granting party conveys their property "for the consideration of" the other party's property. In other words, they swap property in lieu of a monetary figure. It's quite common. Deeds are generally executed and recorded on the same day. Any attorney could easily prepare such a transaction.
Can you safely allow a live-in boyfriend and future husband to co-sign on the refinancing of an existing home equity loan without his having rights to the property at a later date?
In Florida the law states that if it was property titled to you beore marrage it is not part the marital estate. So if he helps finance the property and thenquit deeds his interest in the property tothe future bride to be, when they marry he is still not entitled to the property. If they divorce he is entitled to NOTHING because it was never part of the marital estate. And yes this held up in court for me :) * Yes, as long as the person's name is not on the title and the couple are not married.
Was the bill of rights a part of the original constitution or was it added later?
later
What are some examples of the establishment of private property led to later developments?
The establishment of private property rights has led to economic development by incentivizing individuals to invest in and improve their property, resulting in increased productivity and wealth creation. Additionally, private property ownership has stimulated innovation and technological advancements as individuals seek new ways to utilize and maximize the value of their assets. Furthermore, the protection of private property rights has been associated with political stability and social order, as it provides individuals with a sense of security and ownership over their possessions.
