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When a state outlaws gender discrimination does that violate the freedom of religion of those whose religion says that women should remain subservient to men?
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
In rare cases it may well be that, by outlawing gender discrimination, the state has potentially infringed on a minor religious freedom of one of the parties involved, usually the husband. This is a case where if both parties hold the same religious beliefs, the woman will continue to be subservient to the men in her family regardless of the law, so that nothing changes within the family anyway. On the other hand, if the woman does not believe that she has a religious obligation to be subservient to men, the law will have given her the religious freedom she deserves, at the possible expense of a man in her family. That is equitable.
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
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