0
Decades of precise and repeatable experiments have failed to find a case in which
they are not equal. Some observers have gone so far as to suggest that it is a law
of nature that these two quantities are in fact always equal, and that their equivalence
is quite independent of the efficiency of the machine.
==========================================================
Exactly ! The theoretical Mechanical Advantage that you would expect or
like to get is termed the "Ideal Mechanical Advantage", and the asker asked
"When is the ideal ... equal to the ideal ... ?" I claim that this singlequantity
is equal to itself always and under all conditions, and I said so in my response.
To take up the matter of what M.A. you would actually realize in a real-world
mechanical system is entirely beyond the letter of the question. I strive at all
times to avoid answering a question that was not asked. In other words, when
I respond to the Question "What time is it ?", I resist the instinct to describe
the history, design, manufacture, and home construction of clocks.
As you so perceptively point out, the question is meaningless. I tried to deliver
an answer that responded appropriately.
Wiki User
∙ 11y ago
Wiki User
∙ 10y agoThe mechanical advantage can be equal to the VR when the VR is slightly larger than the MA. Mechanical advantage (MA) is the measure of the force that is achieved by using a tool.
Add your answer:
Earn +20 pts
The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the?
The ideal mechanical advantage of a wheel and axle is equal to the radius of the wheel divided by the radius of the axle.
What does the output force divided by the input force equal?
Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage
In a fixed pulley the effort force is equal to the?
Mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley
If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
If the input force on a pulley is 3 N and the output force is also 3 N what is its mechanical advantage?
The mechanical advantage of the pulley system in this case is 1:1. This means that the input force and output force are equal, resulting in no mechanical advantage gained.
What is a Mechanical advantage equal to?
Mechanical advantage the resistance force. Mechanical advantage is equal output force divided by input force.
What does mechanical advantage equal?
Mechanical advantage equals resistance force.
What does the output force divided by the input force equal?
Efficiency of a machine or mechanical advantage
The ideal mechanical advantage for an inclined plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the?
Ideal Mechanical Advantage for an Inclined Plane is equal to the length of the incline divided by the height of the incline.
What is equal to the output force divided by the input force?
mechanical advantage
How do you get the mechanical advantage of a screw?
To calculate the mechanical advantage of a screw, divide the circumference of the screw by the pitch of the screw. The mechanical advantage of a screw is typically greater than 1, indicating that it allows you to apply a smaller force over a longer distance to lift a heavy load.
Which is equal to the ideal mechanical advantage of a pulley system?
It only takes half the effort to move an object but twice the distance
In a fixed pulley the effort force is equal to the?
Mechanical advantage of a fixed pulley
Mechanical advantage of the block and tackle?
A block and tackle system provides a mechanical advantage by using multiple pulleys to distribute the load over several segments of rope. The mechanical advantage is equal to the number of supporting ropes, which decreases the amount of force required to lift a heavy object. This allows for easier lifting of heavy loads by applying less force over a longer distance.
If a machine was 100 percent efficient how would the AMA compare to the IMA?
If a machine was 100 percent efficient, the AMA would be equal to the IMA. This is because in an ideal scenario where the machine loses no energy to friction or other factors, the AMA (actual mechanical advantage) would be the same as the IMA (ideal mechanical advantage).
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
How is the mechanical advantage o a movable pulley determined?
I do believe it is equal to the number of ropes you have.
