As a law student I cannot and am not giving legal advice but only letting you know what I learned in class. The UCC applies to a sale of goods. However, in a mixed sale transaction (where you are buying a good and also a service; say for example, purchasing a pool which includes the service to install it), the majority of courts have held that the UCC applies if the "dominant purpose" of the transaction is to provide goods rather than services. It's really just a balancing test. In the example, I mentioned, you could argue that the transaction falls under the UCC because you really wanted a pool and not the service. Just ask yourself, what was the dominant purpose?