no because to get a torque you must multiply lever arm by force. If lever is zero, then torque is zero
Torque T=Nmsin x, thus Force N=T/msin x. If sin x is zero Torque is zero and Force is zero.
In that case, you can say that:* The net torque is zero, or equivalently that * The sum (vector sum, to be precise) of all the torques is zero.
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A couple.
NO. not at all b/c torque is directly related to force
A torque will make it rotate - or change its rotation.
angular momentum
Torque is defined as the product of the distance from the pivot point, times a force, times an angle function. If any of the three factors is zero, the product is zero. In this case, the distance from the pivot point.
The performance curve can be a graph of torque versus speed. The torque is zero at zero speed and also at the synchronous speed. Normally an induction motor operates at 90-97% of the synchronous speed, where the slip is between 10% and 3%. In this region the torque is proportional to the slip. As the torque is increased the speed falls until the motor stalls and the speed drops to zero. Below the stalling speed the torque rises between zero speed and the stalling speed. Because the torque is 0 at 0, a single-phase induction motor needs a separate starting winding fed by a starting capacitor to produce a little positive torque that starts the motor.
Because torque is (magnitude of the force) x (distance between the point where the force is applied and the center of rotation). Gravitational force is always directed toward the center of rotation, so the second factor is zero, and the torque is therefore zero.
Multiply by zero.