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The actual wording is not found in the Bible, but the principle is certainly found at 2 Thessalonians 1:6-8 where it says, in part, that God will soon render "...vengeance to them that know not God, and to them that obey not the gospel of our Lord Jesus"(ASV). During this 'time of the end', when the "...gospel of the kingdom will be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all nations..."(NIV-Matthew 24:14), knowledge of WHO God is and what he wants from us is very available, in all parts of the world, even those nations where the Bible and preaching are under ban, so if one's heart is so moved, he can, with sincere prayer and determination, learn these things and bring his life into harmony with God's word, before the 'end comes'(Matthew 24:14). If one is sound in mind, there is NO reason to be ignorant of God's law. If we are, it's because we've CHOSEN to be(John 3:19/John 12:48/Job 24:13/Isaiah 5:20).

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11y ago
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6mo ago

The phrase "ignorance is no excuse to the Law" is not explicitly mentioned in The Bible with those exact words. However, the concept is reflected in various passages. For example, Romans 2:12 says, "For all who have sinned without the law will also perish without the law, and all who have sinned under the law will be judged by the law." This suggests that everyone, regardless of whether they were aware of the law or not, will be held accountable for their actions.

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Q: Where can you find ignorance is no excuse to the Law in the Bible?
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If a citizen claims ignorance of the law is he responsible for his crime?

Yes, he is still responsible for his crime. Ignorance of the law is no excuse. It is your duty as a citizen to know, understand, and obey the law. This is why laws are written.


Can you be prosecuted for a crime if you dont know it exists?

The question is extremely unclear. . . BUT - - "Ignorance of the law is no excuse!"


Can A citizen escape the consequences of breaking a law by proving they had no knowledge of that particular law?

I studied this in my 10th grade business law class. Ignorance is no excuse for not following the law. HOWEVER, if you end up in a case where you feel as though the law (ex. Speed Limit) was not properly displayed, then you could POSSIBLY fight that. But ignorance is NEVER an excuse.


Why is ignorance is no excuse of the law?

Ignorance of the law is not an excuse because the legal system operates under the principle that individuals are expected to know and abide by the laws that govern them. Allowing ignorance as an excuse would undermine the integrity and effectiveness of the legal system by providing an easy way for individuals to escape accountability for their actions.


Can a 17 years old boy say ignorance of a law is an excuse as being young?

Nope minor or not, Ignorance of the law is not a valid reason for committing a crime. Youth MAY be taken into consideration by a prosecutor & a judge, but that is up to them.


Can a insurance billing specialist escape liability by pleading ignorance?

No. Ignorance is not an excuse to evade the law. Can a drunk driver evade a ticket and possible jail time by pleading ignorance? Can a hunter avoid being charged with hunting out of season (poaching) due to ignorance? The simple and lawful answer is NO.


What are the distinction of ignorant leges non excusat?

ignorant leges non excusat means that ignorance of a given law is not an excuse to that criminal charge.


What does it meaning of ignorance of the law excuses no one?

"Ignorance of the law is no excuse" is a common phrase in the law. It means that if an individual breaks a law, they cannot defend themselves by claiming that they did not know that there was a law to be broken, or that they were breaking it.This topic is often tied in with "mens rea." Mens rea is a concept the law uses to describe a mental element of a crime. Often, a crime is defined as requiring that the individual have both committed the act of the crime (the "actus reus") and intended to commit the crime ("mens rea.") There was a time when criminals would claim that they did not intend to commit the crime, because they did not know that the act which they committed was a crime.This is why the law developed the concept that "ignorance of the law is no excuse." It creates an irrebutable presumptionthat every person knows what the law is, and that no one can claim that they did not have the mens rea because they did not know what the law is.


Which of the following is not an element of fraud a. Scienter b. Misrepresentation of a material fact c. Justifiable reliance by the innocent party d. Ignorance of the law?

d. ignorance of the law d. ignorance of the law


Can you find the word Bible in the Holy Bible?

No, but you can find the use of the words Scripture and Law, which are basically synonyms.


What is Difference between ignorance of the law and mistake of law?

There is no such legal finding or terminology as "mistake of law."


Can i be removed of a contract if i were tricked into co-signing for a car?

Unless you were physcially threatened into signing, it is highly unlikely. How in the world could you be tricked? You of course read it before signing, and knew exactly what you were signing. If not, you should have. Ignorance is no excuse under the law.