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Take your pick of the following:
- Shakespeare and Fletcher (The Two Noble Kinsmen, Henry VIII, Cardenio)
- Shakespeare and Wilkins (Pericles)
- Shakespeare and Middleton (Timon of Athens, some folks think)
- Shakespeare and Peele (possibly Edward I, or Edward III, or Titus Andronicus. Nobody is sure about this one)
What else can I help you with?
Shakespeare wrote two gentlemen of?
Shakespeare wrote a play called The Two Gentlemen of Verona.
Why did shakespeare write the two gentlemen of Verona?
Shakespeare wrote this play for the same reason he wrote all of his plays: to make money.
Who were two of the famous writers?
William Shakespeare George Orwell.
Who was king while shakespeare wrote his plays?
Shakespeare wrote his plays in the rein of two monarchs, Elizabeth I and James I of England.
What were two of William Shakespeare's plays?
Shakespeare wrote many plays but these are just two of them. Macbeth and Hamlet.
Who are the two famous writers who died in the same year 1616?
Cervantes and Shakespeare
What does Shakespeare y Charles Dickens son dos escritores mean in English?
Shakespeare and Charles Dickens are two writers.
What were the last two plays Shakespeare wrote?
The Two Noble Kinsmen (written with John Fletcher)Cardenio (written with John Fletcher and also the "lost play")
What was the date when William shakespeare wrote the two noble kingsmen?
The play is actually called, The Two Noble Kinsmen. It was co-authored by Shakespeare and John Fletcher. It is believed to have been written between 1613 and 1614, and was published in 1634.
Did Shakespeare retire before the Globe theatre was burnt down?
It was at about the same time. Henry VIII, the play that was playing on June 29, 1613, is thought by many to be Shakespeare's last play. However, the play The Two Noble Kinsmen, which Shakespeare co-wrote with John Fletcher, may be later yet, which would mean that Shakespeare was still writing after the fire.
Which is the last play of shakespeare?
The last play written by William Shakespeare is 'The Two Noble Kinsmen', from 1613, and it's based on a story from Geoffrey Chaucer and is defined as a Jacobean tragedy.
What are two theories as to why or not shakespeare wrote all the works he was given credit?
There are a number of possible theories as to which plays Shakespeare wrote, and also which ones he wrote without a collaborator. Some say he wrote Edward III, some say not, although he was not given credit for it. On the other hand, he was given credit for writing Pericles, Henry VIII and Macbeth, and there are a lot of people who are pretty sure that some other writer had a hand in those plays. There are several theories as to which one it might have been. The Two Noble Kinsmen was credited to John Fletcher and Shakespeare as collaborators, but for the longest time many people believed that Shakespeare had not collaborated on that play. There is a theory that Shakespeare was a collaborator on George Peele's Edward I, but didn't get credit for it. As you see, there are numerous possible theories involving Shakespeare writing things he was not credited with or not writing parts of the plays he is credited with. Theories that he didn't write anything at all have been advanced, but the evidence is so strongly against them that they are not worth considering.
