Rich male landowners.
Women didn't have a vote in 1900
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They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
because the women did not have the rights to do it
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
No you dont have to
Citizens of England were allowed to vote in the 18th century.
They couldn't vote in any colonies. They didnt have dreedom to vote and neither did women. The only people who could vote where whitemen. Nothing else.
50 to 75% of white males could vote which was more than England.
because the women did not have the rights to do it
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
A greater percentage of men could vote in the colonies than could vote in England -Plato
Around 2/3 of the male population could vote, anyone over 21, sane and not in prison, the guy who did it before was clearly a tw*t and wrong x
No,they have monarchy government,which is ruled by a queen or a king and stays within one royal family.If the had a democracy,which is ruled by the people,they could vote. The United Kingdom which includes England does have the right to vote in Government Elections. It has nothing to do with the Queen and Monarchy.
American prior to 1920 when women won the right to vote. England prior to Queen Elizabeth. Most industrialized countries prior to 1900. Iraq prior to the current war. Iran currently. Shall I continue?
Rich male landowners.
No you dont have to
Only the men that were rich could vote, women could not vote.