Because if they did they wouldn't be Shakespeare's. Many people were writing plays at that time: Shakespeare wrote Shakespeare's plays; Marlowe wrote Marlowe's plays; Jonson wrote Jonson's plays; Middleton wrote Middleton's plays; Webster wrote Webster's plays, and the same for Heywood, and Chettle, and Beaumont and Fletcher.
How do we know that Shakespeare wrote the plays? For three very good reasons:
John and Mary Arden, Shakespeares parents, did encourage Shakespeare
play write , poems
No, that was Roald Dahl.
no he wasnt he couldnt read nor could he write ! :)
No but he used to perform to them. There is also speculation that shakespeare did not write his plays but the king/a rich man did. they did not want the publicity and so shakespeares name was put on them instead as the leader of the actors.
Shakespeare is believed to be one of a group of playwrights who tried to write a play about Sir Thomas More. However, there was no way to write it that didn't make Henry VIII look bad, and although they tried several drafts, they could not get it approved by the censors.
It is misleading to suggest that Shakespeare wrote stories. With very few exceptions, Shakespeare made plays out of other people's stories. He also tweaked their stories and made them better. But he did not write or even make up stories.
Nobody knows this. It was not considered to be important enough to write down. And you know what? They were right.
because the children couldnt either: write neatly or they messed about or they was naughty or late to school
Yes,I did
Yes
He used to write plays,now he is an author.