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Why did Britain and France agree to the Czech Sudetenland to Hitler?
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∙ 9y ago
The Munich Agreement was signed in Munich , Germany .
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What 2 countries was Hitler able to occupy as part of appeasement?
Technically it was one country but got split into two.Back in 1938, Czech Republic and Slovakia were one country, "Czechoslovakia". Parts of western Czech Republic had lots of German people living in them; this region was called Sudetenland. Hitler demanded Sudetenland, because he felt that German people should live in Germany (at least that's what he said). The leaders of France and England met with Hitler at Munich to decide what to do.After the Munich Agreement allowed him to take the Sudetenland (even though nobody bothered to ask Czechoslovakia if that was ok), Hitler used this to weaken the Czechoslovakian government and military. About six months after taking Sudetenland, Hitler invited the president of Czechoslovakia to meet him in Berlin, where Hitler informed the president that Germany was invading. The president had a heart attack, and Germany did in fact invade. The Slovakian part of Czechoslovakia was separated out and made into its own country, but this new country was mostly under Germany's control too.Perhaps you are also thinking of Austria? Austria was not part of the Munich Agreement, which is what "appeasement" typically refers to. Austria and Germany had been forbidden from merging by the treaties that ended World War I, and Hitler chose to ignore this. The Allies were not consulted, nor did they really do anything except complain when it happened.
Why did Hitler say he should have Sudetenland?
Hitler claimed that Sudetenland rightfully belonged to Germany because there were a lot of German people living there. Sudetenland was once a part of Austria; after World War I, it became a part of the new country of Czechoslovakia (which eventually split into the Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993).
Area given to Hitler as appeasement in 1938?
The region was the Sudetenland, which was in northern Czechoslovakia. Shortly after the concession, Hitler forced the collapse of the Czech state and assumed control of the rest of the country under a system known as The Protectorate.
To what extent is it true that Britain appeased Germany over the Czech crisis due to Britain's lack of military preparations?
It is true that Britain was unprepared for a war. It is true that no Allied nation was prepared for or wanted a war. It is true that knowing this Hitler "pushed" for every advantage he had. It is true that knowing France and Britain were obligated to protect Poland he went ahead and invaded. His attack was calculated on the premise that accomodation and Peace were not the real objectives of France and Britain, and that one more "bite" from the "pie" might, just might, be tolerated. It was an error in judgement. The Sudetenland was not important. Active defiance of the European powers was important and could not, and should not have been ignored. When Germany attacked Poland, the dice had been thrown and the Second Great World War had begun.
Did Chamberlain convince the Czech government to give over the Sudetenland?
no. Chamberlain and others talked with Germany and agreed that Germany would take the Sudetenland. No one talked to the Czechs.
What 2 countries was Hitler able to occupy as part of appeasement?
Technically it was one country but got split into two.Back in 1938, Czech Republic and Slovakia were one country, "Czechoslovakia". Parts of western Czech Republic had lots of German people living in them; this region was called Sudetenland. Hitler demanded Sudetenland, because he felt that German people should live in Germany (at least that's what he said). The leaders of France and England met with Hitler at Munich to decide what to do.After the Munich Agreement allowed him to take the Sudetenland (even though nobody bothered to ask Czechoslovakia if that was ok), Hitler used this to weaken the Czechoslovakian government and military. About six months after taking Sudetenland, Hitler invited the president of Czechoslovakia to meet him in Berlin, where Hitler informed the president that Germany was invading. The president had a heart attack, and Germany did in fact invade. The Slovakian part of Czechoslovakia was separated out and made into its own country, but this new country was mostly under Germany's control too.Perhaps you are also thinking of Austria? Austria was not part of the Munich Agreement, which is what "appeasement" typically refers to. Austria and Germany had been forbidden from merging by the treaties that ended World War I, and Hitler chose to ignore this. The Allies were not consulted, nor did they really do anything except complain when it happened.
Why did Hitler say he should have Sudetenland?
Hitler claimed that Sudetenland rightfully belonged to Germany because there were a lot of German people living there. Sudetenland was once a part of Austria; after World War I, it became a part of the new country of Czechoslovakia (which eventually split into the Czech Republic and Slovakia in 1993).
How did Britain and France respond to hitlers demands for control over part of Czechoslovakia?
Poland was invaded first. France and England declared war on Germany at that time. When Czechoslovakia was invaded they had already declared war on Germany and further objected to Hilter for his invasion tactics. England had started building up their ability to make war and the people practiced air raids and began signing up to serve in the military.
What Prime Minster allowed Hitler to take Czech territory?
UK Prime Minister allowed Nazi German Führer Hitler to annex the Sudetenland, which was a Czechoslovak territory, in pursuit of peace with him in 1938.
What countries prime minister allows Hitler to take Czech territory?
Great Britain
What world leader was not present at the Munich conference?
Sadly, the Prime Minister of Czechoslovakia was not invited as Hitler, Mussolini, Chamberlain and Daladier gave the Czech Sudetenland to Germany.
Why did Hitler take over Rhineland and Sudetenland?
To one's knowledge, other than gaining land from Poland to expand from.Hitler wanted to take over Europe, and eventually the world if possible. He considered all others (everyone) in the world to be inferior to the Germans. He wanted to create a "Aryan" race of blond hair blue eyed human beings who all spoke German. Countries such as Czech/Slovak Hung, Poland, were mere stepping stones in his plans for New World Order.
Area given to Hitler as appeasement in 1938?
The region was the Sudetenland, which was in northern Czechoslovakia. Shortly after the concession, Hitler forced the collapse of the Czech state and assumed control of the rest of the country under a system known as The Protectorate.
What did Hitler threaten if he did not get the Sudetenland?
Hitler threatened war if he did not get the Sudetenland. The story is fully explained in the Wikipedia under the heading of Appeasement. In September, Chamberlain flew to Berchtesgaden to negotiate directly with Hitler, hoping to avoid war. Hitler now demanded that the Sudetenland should be absorbed into Germany, convincing Chamberlain that refusal meant war. Chamberlain, with France, told the Czech president that he must hand to Germany all territory with a German majority. Czechoslovakia would thus lose 800,000 citizens, much of its industry and its mountain defenses in the west. In effect, the British and French pressed their ally to cede territory to a hostile neighbour.[5]
What did Hitler believe should happen with the Sudetenland?
That because it was occupied by people more German than Czech it should be part of Germany: & when it was he went on to invade Czechoslovakia anyway.
Policy of appeasement effects on World War 2?
Appeasement was the policy of the West of avoiding confrontation with Nazi Germany. After WWI, Europe was devastated economically, physically, and emotionally. They did not want to be dragged into another conflict so when Hitler violated the Treaty of Versailles by reoccupying the Rhineland and expanding the German army past the limit, they did nothing. Meanwhile, in Spain, a civil war and Fascist revolt threatened the democratic government. Despite Germany and Italy supporting the Spanish Fascists, Britain and France refused to fight a proxy war by supporting the Communist government. At Munich, British, French, and German leaders met to discuss Germany reoccupying the Sudetenland of Czech. . They agreed to German control because it was German speaking as long Hitler stopped there. Hitler then took the rest of Czech. but the Allies again did nothing. Finally, on Sept. 1, 1939 and Britain and France declared war on Germany. Despite this common explanation, there is another possibility. After WWI, Russia became Communist despite the Allies best efforts. Communism quickly became a scary topic and a Red Scare even greater then the one of the 50s took place. During the twenties and thirties, conservatives in Britain and France saw Fascism, not as an evil, but a cure for Communism. (There are numerous quotes by high ranking Allies supporting this fact.) Britain saw Fascist Germany as a way to eliminate Communist Russia. (Hitler described his work Mein Kampf) Britain encouraged Nazi eastern expansion. They saw Hitler as the best way to eliminate Stalin. At Munich, the Soviet Union was not involved in the decision to give up he Sudetenland. However, when Hitler gave a portion of Czech. to Austria as a gift, Britain realized that Hitler might attack France BEFORE attacking the Soviet Union. Look into this, its pretty interesting.
The historical name for the western region of the Czech Republic?
Bohemia, or the Sudetenland.
