answersLogoWhite

0

Probably because we were a nation of explorers. Over the last 600 years, we have travelled to many distant countries, claiming the newly-discovered land in the name of the King (or Queen). Since those early exploration days, we have relinquished rule over many countries in favour of their independence.

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

What else can I help you with?

Related Questions

How many countries did Henry VIII rule over?

He was King of England, Lord of Ireland so ruled them and he wanted to rule Scotland and France but that didn't work out..


When will England win the World Cup?

Never so get over it! ^not a clue mate! england rule (by Daleo1234)


Why did lady Jane grey rule for 9 days?

because Mary wanted to be queen so she got an executor to kill her so Mary could rule England


What would England have to do to win the American Revolution War?

England did rule over the Americans at one point in history and they wanted freedom so they went to war


How many different types of sweets are there in England?

there are so many sweets in England you can never be sure how many there are.


What regions does England have?

not so many


Why did the many settlers come to the Plymouth colony?

so that they could self-rule themselves.


How does the song rule britannia go?

I know this, I'm from England, so I know, it goes.... Rule Britannia, Britannia rules the waves, Britain's never never never will be slaves.


How many medals have England won in the last 10 years?

I am not so sure England has won many medals in the last 10 yrs but not so sure how many.


Which of the New England colonies sent fur to England so England could pay off their many debts?

England is great


Did British royal family rule England because of the sword of Excalibur?

Yes and MacDonald's rule the world because of fat people. no. Excalibur is a mith so is king Author and the round table.


Was England under the Catholic rule after the 1600s?

John Milton, wrote paradise lost in this same time period during the 1600's and his writing was actually very tuned to a protestant audience. It was regarded highly in England because the population was mainly Protestant. So no, I don't believe that England was under Catholic rule after the 1600's