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This question is based on a false premise. Judaism did not become matriarchal in reaction to Christianity. Judaism is based on a combination of matriarchal and patriarchal aspects. Before Christianity was established, the religious aspect of Judaism (who was a Jew) was determined by the birth mother and tribe was determined by biological father.

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12y ago
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Wiki User

12y ago

The question is confusing ... at least to this contributor. It looks as if it may have

been lifted from someone's exam paper or homework assignment, and may not

even be complete. So this contributor certainly can't begin to offer an answer.

However, the question seems to rest heavily on a central premise which is 'given'

but false.

Judaism was roughly 2,000 years old at the time of Christianity's birth. It's clearly

impossible for Christianity to have been around a lot longer than Judaism, since

Jesus and his disciples were educated, knowledgeable, practicing Jews. Also, had

Judaism not been around yet, there would have been no temple out of which to

throw the money changers etc., and no law for Jesus to refer to when he said

"Think not that I have come to change the law."

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Q: Why did Judaism become a matriarchal faith in the face of Christianity being Patriarchal and what is the significance of the split?
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