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If you're talking about for the purposes of determining representation in the House of Representatives, the northern states specfically did not want that, as it would have allowed the southern states to dominate.
What else can I help you with?
Why did the north want every slave to be counted?
If you're talking about for the purposes of determining representation in the House of Representatives, the northern states specfically did not want that, as it would have allowed the southern states to dominate.
How would states like Virginia who had a large slave population want slaves to be counted in the population for determining representation in congress?
The same as every other person.
Why didnt the North want every slave to be counted?
The North opposed counting every slave for representation because it would disproportionately boost the political power of the Southern states, where enslaved populations were high. This could lead to increased influence in Congress and the Electoral College for slaveholding states, undermining Northern interests. Additionally, many Northerners viewed slavery as morally wrong and believed that counting slaves as part of the population for representation unfairly legitimized the institution. Thus, the North sought to limit the political power derived from slavery.
Why did the north oppose the war with Mexico?
the whigs did not want conquered territory to become slave states
What was the 3 to 5 ratio for counting slaves?
It was a result of a compromise between the North and the South. The North wanted slaves to be counted for taxation purposes in the South to bring in more revenue for the federal government which was something the South did not want. But the South wanted to count slaves towards in population in terms of representation so they could have more members in the House of Representative which the North did not want. In the end they settled upon the idea that each slave counted as 3/5 of a person, both in terms of taxation and representation.
Did North Carolina want to count slaves as population?
Slaves were not counted in the population census in 1860 or 1870.
Why was the fugitive slave law unpopular in the north?
It was unpopular in the north because they did not support slavery, and therefore did not want to send escaped slaves back to the south
Which amendment were slaves counted as only three fifths of a person?
The "Three-Fifths Compromise" was not a constitutional amendment, but rather part of the actual Constitution written in 1787 (Article 1, Section 2, Paragraph 3), as an attempt to get both slave states, who wanted slaves to be counted as people because of taxation reasons, and non-slave states, who didn't want slaves to be counted as people, to ratify the document.
Why did the North want Congress to control trade and that the US should continue with slave trading?
because they are stupid idiots
What did elbridge gerry from Massachusetts think about slave trade?
He did not want slave representation, he said that since slaves were property in the south, just as cattle and horses in the north, they should not be represented.
How did the North feel about the Fugitive Slave Laws?
North dislike The Fugitive Slave Law, because that did not support slavery, and therefore did not want to send escaped slaves back to the south. North brought the slavery issue to their own doorstep , and gave the runawys a heroic victim status.
Why did the southern states not want slaves counted as residents in their states?
Actually it would have been helpful to have each slave counted as a full person because that would have meant more representatives in Congress. It was the northern colonies that didn't want the slaves counted as whole person. The south all ready had the largest States and to add the slave population in would have made them very powerful. By 1860 there would be 6 million slaves in the south so counting them as 3/4ths of a person wasn't great, but better than counting them as a whole person.
