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The northern states didn't have slavery as the southern states did, and they were smaller. They were afraid that if slaves were counted as part of the population that would give the southern states an advantage when they were represented in Congress. In 1790 35% of the population in VA was slave, so that can make a difference in the balance of power between states.
Well I dont know why but ithink some one from black history led them
the reason the northern states allowed slave trade to continue was so they could have laws they wanted passed to be agreed with by the southern states. within doing this, there was a compromise and the northern states agreed to it. so, the slaves we left as property to the plantation owners and northern states didn't have to return run away slaves to their owners.
Northern states opposed it, Southern States were in favor. Finally they compromised, and agreed that 5 slaves would be counted as 3 citizens.
I'm not sure but, about half of the population were slaves
The northern states didn't have slavery as the southern states did, and they were smaller. They were afraid that if slaves were counted as part of the population that would give the southern states an advantage when they were represented in Congress. In 1790 35% of the population in VA was slave, so that can make a difference in the balance of power between states.
One-Half Compromise was the compromise that dealt with the Northern States concern of the Southern States using slaves as part of the counted population thus influencing their representation in Congress.
To get both the northern and southern states to agree to it. The southern states wanted slaves counted in the population for determining representation in Congress (even though slaves couldn't vote). The northern states wanted them excluded.
No, Guam did not have slaves during the American Civil War. During the Civil War Guam and the other northern states had no slaves while the southern states did have slaves. The states in the Pacific such as Guam and Hawaii were on the northern side and so did not have slaves.
The question was, how should slaves be counted for the purpose of Congressional representation? The South wanted to count all slaves as "population", because this would increase the number of Representatives from the slave states. The northern states didn't want to include slaves AT ALL; if they weren't fully citizens and couldn't vote, why should they be counted for purposes of representation? The "three fifths" compromise gave southern states some additional Congressional representation, without giving the South an overwhelming advantage.
Well I dont know why but ithink some one from black history led them
When it came to apportioning direct taxes, the northern states believed that slaves were not citizens and couldn't be counted as people. However, since the majority of the slave population was in the southern states, the northern states had less political power and representation in the government.
Slaves should not be included when counting a states population to determine representation in congress. (APEX)
the reason the northern states allowed slave trade to continue was so they could have laws they wanted passed to be agreed with by the southern states. within doing this, there was a compromise and the northern states agreed to it. so, the slaves we left as property to the plantation owners and northern states didn't have to return run away slaves to their owners.
The Northern States and Canada, but I don't know what the Northern States are though!
The Yankees outnumbered the Rebels, IMPROVEMENT. The Northern States had a population of 18 715 055. The Confederate States has a population of 9 103 332 of which 3 522 034 slaves. The Border States (Kentucky, Missouri, Maryland) had a population of 3 024 745.
The Northern States during the 1800s or something.