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maybe because of what Elizabeth I did when she reigned in her time, the people respected her and loved her.

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The Salic Law did not apply to England, so women were allowed to reign. Since all monarchs after Henry II justified their claims because of their descent from William the Conqueror through his daughter Mathilda, it would have been counter-productive to forbid female rule.

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13y ago
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13y ago

But they did have Emperors in the Middle Ages. Charlemagne, who was king of what is now France as well as parts of Germany had himself crowned as Holy Roman Emperor on December 25, 800 AD. His successors in title (in his German dominions, not his French ones) continued to call themselves Emperor until Napoleon abolished the title in 1806, long after the end of the middle ages.

And Charlemagne wasn't the only Emperor. Constantine, the Roman emperor, had moved his capital from Rome to Byzantium (now Istanbul in Turkey) in the 4th century and his successors continued to have the title Emperor until Byzantium was captured by the Turks in 1453. Indeed the Ottomans appropriated the title "Emperor of the Romans" for their Sultans who were also Emperors up to 1921.

During the Middle Ages both the Holy Roman Emperor and the Byzantine Emperor were powerful figures.

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13y ago

The United Kingdom (which includes England) hasn't had a King since 1952 when King George VI died. The present monarch is Queen Elizabeth II and her husband is Prince Phillip. When she dies, her eldest son Prince Charles, will become King Charles III. It hasn't yet been decided if his wife will become Queen.

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11y ago

1788

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Q: Why did queens start to rule England?
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