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Why did some non-Arabs object to their rule?

Updated: 8/21/2019
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10y ago

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It depends entirely on who "they" are. Even assuming that the "they" are Arabs, it does not specify the relevant dynasty or ruler and objections to some rulers did not pass to their successors. Please resubmit the question clarifying the ruler in question.

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Q: Why did some non-Arabs object to their rule?
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