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Why did England and France follow the policy of appeasement toward Germany?
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
Mostly because Neither Britain nor France was ready, willing or able to go to war again to stop Germany. Both had suffered great losses in the First World War, which had only been over eighteen years when Hitler made his first moves in 1935. The people of both nations were still sick of the very idea of war, still heartisck over lost loved ones and friends, bitter and disillusioned that nothing much seemed to have been gained for so much awful sacrifice. There was a worldwide economic despression, and military spending in both countries had been given a low priority, while Hitler was able to insist on acquiring tanks, planes, ships and so on, which also gave jobs in heavy industry and made him even more popular at home. Hitler could have been squashed like the bug he was in 1935, when he remilitarized the Rhinleland and started a German Air Force, both forbidden by the Treaty of Versailles. But neither Britain nor France had the political will to do anything to stop him, and the people in general were firmly against getting on the path to more conflict and bloodshed. By 1939, Germany was much stronger and far advanced in rearming, and the task thus was much more difficult.
Wiki User
∙ 10y ago
Wiki User
∙ 11y agoThey were not ready to fight a war with Hitler.
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Why did Britain follow a policy of appeasement?
Britain exercised a policy of appeasement with Hitler because initially, his demands were reasonable. The belief was that if appeasement was used, he would eventually become satisfied and stop his aggression. The British Prime Minister, Neville Chamberlain believed that appeasement was the appropriate tactic.
How did confederate leaders hope to follow up on lees successes in Virginia?
They hoped to receive recognition from one or more major European countries such as England, France, Spain, and Germany; and to force the North to the negotiating table.
Which were the first four countries to follow Britain into the Industrial Revolution?
Belgium, Germany, France, and the United States
What policy did Neville Chamberlain follow when Hitler demanded control of the Sudentenland?
appeasement
How would you justify France and Great Britain's action to follow a policy of appeasement?
Fear, blindness and isolation.Fear: Great Britain and France wished at all costs to avoid a bloodbath like WW1 (which they called the Great War).Blindness: They did not see that Hitler's final aim was complete domination of Europe and then the world.Isolation: The US and the USSR did not provide any support to Great Britain and France in confronting Hitler. And these two huge countries had been necessary to defeat Germany in WW1.They also know that economically, industrially, and militarily, they were unprepared for war, and Germany had been rearming since Hitler became Chancellor.
Why did countries follow a policy of appeasement with Italy Germany and France?
because they did not have a chose
Why did the US initially follow the appeasement policy toward Germany?
The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.
What policy did Britain and France follow against Fascist aggression?
appeasement
Why did the US initially follow a policy of appeasement toward Germany?
The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.
Why did the United State initially follow a policy of appeasement of Germany?
Many diffrent reasons .
Why did the US initially follow policy of appeasement towards Germany?
The United States initially had to follow a policy of appeasement towards Germany. This policy was directly related to the treaty of Versailles.
Which policy did France and Great Britain follow by allowing Hitler to annex the Sudetenland of Czechoslovakia in 1938?
The policy of appeasement.
When it happened 1939 Germany's invasion of Poland?
September 1, 1939 German forces invaded Poland's borders after expressed demands by England and France that Germany not invade any other countries. That the German government follow the demands of the Versailles Treaty following World War I. Due to the repetitive breach of the treaty, the invasion of Poland was the last straw and France and England declared war on Germany September 3, 1939.
World War 2 why did the british follow the appeasement?
because...
Why did Britain follow a policy of appeasement?
Britain exercised a policy of appeasement with Hitler because initially, his demands were reasonable. The belief was that if appeasement was used, he would eventually become satisfied and stop his aggression. The British Prime Minister, Neville Chamberlain believed that appeasement was the appropriate tactic.
What did Hitler declared at the Munich Conference?
Britain and France gave in to Hitler's demands for the Sudetenland. Czechoslovakia was not present at this conference, and it should be noted that this land contained key heavy industries, as well as 3 million GermansIn September 1938 Germany, Britain, France, and Italy met in Munich to decide what action, if any, to take concerning German demands for territory in Czechoslovakia. This conference came to be known as the Munich Conference. While there, Britain and France decided to allow Germany to annex the areas near the German border (the Sudetenland). Hitler said that it was his "final demand" in Europe.The action of Britain and France is regarded as appeasement.
How did confederate leaders hope to follow up on lees successes in Virginia?
They hoped to receive recognition from one or more major European countries such as England, France, Spain, and Germany; and to force the North to the negotiating table.
