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Spain sold the Philippines to the US because Spain had been defeated by the US in the Spanish-American war in 1898 and one of the provisions the US required in the Peace Treaty was the sale of the Philippines
U.S controlled the Philippines.
cause
After the Philippine-American War, the US governed the Philippines as a US possession. As it had promised to do before the war, after World War 2 the US granted independence to the Philippines.
Contrary to popular American belief, the Republic of Philippines is a sovereign independent country. The US has never "acquired them"
time in the Philippines is 3am
well on average the Philippines are 14 hours ahead of the us. it would be 12 noon there in the Philippines
the things we got from them like, cultures and languages. ------------- The Philippines hold an American base in the pacific during that time.
The Philippines are 8 hours ahead of us so that would mean it would be midnight in the Philippines Hope this helps.
No. Furthermore, they never have been. During the time of US control of the Philippines, they were considered US Nationals, but not US Citizens (the big difference being that they can't vote in US federal elections).
1 AM Thursday Eastern Time = 2 PM Thursday in the Philippines 1 PM Thursday Eastern Time = 2 AM Friday in the Philippines There is a 13 hour time difference between the two places.
In 1910 no one had the title "President of the Philippines." At that time the Philippines was a possession of the USA and was governed by an appointee of the US President. You might stretch a point and say that the President of the US was the President of the Philippines, although no one thought in those terms then. In 1910 the President of the US was William Howard Taft.
contrast of us and philippines
Yes, the US was controled the Philippines in 1944 due to the War between the us and the Philippines.
At the time, the Philippines were a US possession that was scheduled to receive full independence in 1946. Nevertheless, the Philippines were a base for US armed forces and would have to be neutralized once Japan had decided to attack Pearl Harbor. So they had to invade the Philippines to prevent their use by the US as a base for attacking them.
No, they're Philippine citizens.Residents during the time the islands were controlled by the US were US nationals but not US citizens. However, the Philippines have been independent of the US since at least 1946, so most residents today can't even claim to be US nationals.
Hard to say. William McKinley was President in 1898 when the Phillippines claimed their independence from Spain ( and actually everybody else). William Howard Taftserved as the first US colonial governor. Harry Truman was President in 1946 when the Philippines became independent of the US.