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Q: Why does the US intervene in other countries' affairs?
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Does the US intervene too much with other countries?

PT Barnur was an American showman and a circus entrepreneur.


The 1901 Platt Amendment gave the US power to intervene in the military affairs of which country?

Cuba


Which country could US intervene in according to the roosevelt corollary?

To protect the independence of American states, the US would, if necessary, exercise its power as the policeman of the Western Hemisphere. In other words, Europe was to keep out of the affairs of South and North America, but the US would act, using military force if necessary, and intervene in nations south of our border if necessary to protect our interests.


Is US military intervention in other countries justified?

No it is not. And George Washington gave us great advice to not intervene into the eastern hemisphere's problems.


What gave the US the right to intervene in Cuban affairs to protect American lives and property?

The Platt Amendment


Which of the following countries could the US intervene in according to the Roosevelt Corollary?

Latin American Countries


America can intervene in the internal affairs of Latin America to maintain stability?

As much as Brazil or Mexico could intervene to change the US Government if its policies don't fit their schemes (i.e: a resounding NO).


Why did the US feel the need to intervene in foreign affairs in 1917 after a long period of isolationism?

The us congress had to fight over who was going to have sex with the first lady


Who gave the US the right to intervene in Cuban affairs to protect American lives and property?

The US did. Their legislation gave their own country the ability to "go wherever and do whatever" on the basis of "national security", regardless of other countries' right of sovereignty and independence, and with an arbitrary decision of what constitutes a risk.


The Platt Amendment declared US intentions to intervene?

The Platt Amendment reserved the United State's right to intervene in Cuban affairs and forced newly independent Cuba to host American naval bases on the island.


Does the US have legal obligation to intervene if genocide is occurring anywhere in the world?

The United States is not legally obligated to intervene in cases of genocide occurring in other countries. However, there may be moral or political pressure to act. The decision to intervene is typically based on a variety of factors, including national interests and feasibility of intervention.


Does the Monroe Doctrine state that the US would not intervene in the affairs of countries in Latin America?

Monroe stated: "The American continents ... are henceforth not to be considered as subjects for future colonization by any European powers" and warned the imperial European powers against interfering in the affairs of the newly independent Latin American states or potential United States territories. Any interference would b taken as a threat to America's security. This doctrine also refrain US from participation in European wars and pledged not to disturb existing colonies in the Western Hemisphere. It was successful in keeping France, Spain and other powers out of the region and allowed Britain to long remain the dominant trade power in Latin America. No it does not state the US would not intervene. On the contrary, it basically lays the groundwork for the America's being in the US sphere of influence. While this does not mean the US would interfere in other country's affairs, it laid the ground work for future amendments to allow it. it also stated that Americans should not interfere in European nations affairs