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If you refer to Gauss's law, it states the electric flux through any closed surface is proportionate to the enclosed electric charge.

The electric flux density is the same as the electric field intensity. A Gaussian surface is a closed, three dimensional surface (there's no holes in it).

Here's an example to help clarify what this is and is not saying. Suppose I have a clear glass ball. The "light charge" inside the ball is zero because there is no light source inside the ball. If I put the ball in the sunlight, light will go into one side, and out the other (ignore any sort of prism effect, etc. just don't think too hard about this example!). This ball still does not have an internal "light charge" because the light flowing into the ball is equivalent to the light flowing out (the "light density" through the surface sums to zero, or the line integral of the light density = 0 for this surface).

If I put a light source inside the ball, the line integral of "light density" leaving the ball would be proportional to the "light charge" inside the ball; in other words the line integral tells you what is enclosed by the Gaussian surface (my fictitious light source, but not the sun). Even if I put it in the sunlight again, the line integral will remove the "light charge" due to the sun and I will be left with only my internal light source.

In both these instances, absolutely nothing is being stated about the "light density" / "light intensity" inside the ball. For both instances, there is a light intensity INSIDE the ball, even though the "light charge" inside is non zero in only one case.

Relating to the question, this means if you have a Gaussian surface (such as a sphere), and it has/does not have an enclosed electric charge, you can have an electric field through the sphere - the fact this field is there tells you nothing about the internal charge of the Gaussian surface until you perform the line integral to measure what's coming in and what's going out.

So, what I'm stating is the question is not true - the electric field is not necessarily zero inside a Gaussian surface, even if the surface does not contain an electrically charged particle. This should be easily seen by taking the typical point charge example: You have a point charge, and you draw the Gaussian surface around it. The point charge radiates electric field lines in all directions away from itself. If you move the Gaussian surface to the left until the point charge is no longer enclosed in it, you will see the radiating electric field lines due to this point charge still go into and out of the surface (so there is an electric field due to the point charge inside the surface), but the point charge is no longer enclosed by the surface (so the line integral sums to zero).

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12y ago
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2w ago

The electric field inside a uniformly charged ring is zero because the field contributions from each infinitesimal charge element cancel each other out due to symmetry. The horizontal components of the electric fields from diametrically opposite charges cancel each other, while the vertical components add up to zero. Thus, the net electric field inside the ring is zero.

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12y ago

I think there is no charge distribution in side a ring

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Q: Why is electric field inside a ring is zero?
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Why is electric potential inside a ring conductor on a conducting paper that has elctric field zero?

The electric potential inside a ring conductor on a conducting paper is zero because the electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is zero. This is due to the charges redistributing themselves in such a way that the electric field cancels out inside the conductor. Since the electric potential is directly related to the electric field, the potential inside the conductor is also zero.


Why should the Electric field inside a conductor zero?

The electric field inside a conductor is zero because any electric field that is present will cause the charges inside the conductor to move until they distribute themselves in such a way that cancels out the electric field. This redistribution of charges ensures that the net electric field inside the conductor is zero in equilibrium.


The electrical intensity inside a charged hollow sphere is?

Zero, because the electric field inside a charged hollow sphere is zero. This is due to the Gauss's law and symmetry of the charged hollow sphere, which results in no net electric field inside the sphere.


What is the electric field on the surface of the conductor?

The electric field on the surface of a conductor is zero in electrostatic equilibrium. This is due to the fact that charges inside the conductor rearrange themselves such that the net electric field inside the conductor is zero. This causes any external electric field to be canceled out at the surface of the conductor.


Why the electric field inside charged hollow sphere zero?

The electric field inside a charged hollow sphere is zero because the net contribution from the charges on the inner surface of the sphere cancels out due to symmetry. This means that the field created by the positive charges is equal and opposite to the field created by the negative charges, resulting in a net field of zero inside the sphere.

Related questions

Why is electric potential inside a ring conductor on a conducting paper that has elctric field zero?

The electric potential inside a ring conductor on a conducting paper is zero because the electric field inside a conductor in electrostatic equilibrium is zero. This is due to the charges redistributing themselves in such a way that the electric field cancels out inside the conductor. Since the electric potential is directly related to the electric field, the potential inside the conductor is also zero.


Why should the Electric field inside a conductor zero?

The electric field inside a conductor is zero because any electric field that is present will cause the charges inside the conductor to move until they distribute themselves in such a way that cancels out the electric field. This redistribution of charges ensures that the net electric field inside the conductor is zero in equilibrium.


The electrical intensity inside a charged hollow sphere is?

Zero, because the electric field inside a charged hollow sphere is zero. This is due to the Gauss's law and symmetry of the charged hollow sphere, which results in no net electric field inside the sphere.


What will happened to the strength of electric field inside a shell of charge?

If the charge is uniformly distributed over the shell, then the electric field is zero everywhere inside.


What is the electric field on the surface of the conductor?

The electric field on the surface of a conductor is zero in electrostatic equilibrium. This is due to the fact that charges inside the conductor rearrange themselves such that the net electric field inside the conductor is zero. This causes any external electric field to be canceled out at the surface of the conductor.


What is the size of the electric field inside any charged conductors?

Inside a conductor, it's zero.


Why the electric field inside charged hollow sphere zero?

The electric field inside a charged hollow sphere is zero because the net contribution from the charges on the inner surface of the sphere cancels out due to symmetry. This means that the field created by the positive charges is equal and opposite to the field created by the negative charges, resulting in a net field of zero inside the sphere.


The electric field inside a hollow uniformly charged sphere is zero Does this imply that the potential is zero inside the sphere Explain?

No, the electric field being zero inside a hollow uniformly charged sphere does not necessarily imply that the potential is zero inside. The potential depends on the location of the reference point used to calculate it. If the reference point is chosen at infinity, the potential inside a hollow sphere will not be zero.


What is the electric field half way to the centre of a conducting sphere charged to a potential of 15v?

electric field inside the conducting sphere is ZER0..! because their are equivalent charges all around the sphere which makes the net force zero hence we can say that the electric field is also zero.!


How is a charged particle accelerated when the electric field inside the dees of a cyclotron is zero?

In a cyclotron, the charged particle is accelerated by the oscillating electric field between the dees. When the particle enters the gap between the dees, the electric field is zero, but a magnetic field causes the particle to rotate in a circular path and gain energy each time it crosses the gap due to its velocity being increased by the electric field before entering the gap.


If potential is constant throughout a given region of space can you say that electric field is zero in that region?

No, the electric field does not necessarily have to be zero just because the potential is constant in a given region of space. The electric field is related to the potential by the gradient, so if the potential is constant, the electric field is zero only if the gradient of the potential is zero.


When electric flux is zero then electric field is also zero why?

The electric flux depends on charge, when the charge is zero the flux is zero. The electric field depends also on the charge. Thus when the electric flux is zero , the electric field is also zero for the same reason, zero charge. Phi= integral E.dA= integral zcDdA = zcQ Phi is zcQ and depends on charge Q, as does E.