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Why is the mechanical advantage less than that by the given formula?
Dhirajsah
The mechanical advantage is less than that given by a formula due to additional outside forces. This can include things like temperature which are difficult to predict or incorporate.
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∙ 10y ago
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When is mechanical advantage less than 1?
When the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input.
How does the ideal compare with the actual mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.
When is it useful for some tasks to have a mechanical advantage less than 1?
The mechanical advantage is less than 1 when the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input. You can move an object far faster than your source of power is capable of working. Such as in the final gears in your car, where the wheels are turning faster than the engine is.
Mechanical advantage of a 3rd class lever?
always less than 1
The mechanical advantage of a second class lever?
... is always less than 1 .
What is true about the mechanical advantage of a machine?
it is less than the ideal mechanical advantage
How does actual mechanical advantage compare with ideal mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.
When is mechanical advantage less than 1?
When the output is less than the input. Mechanical advantage is expressed as the ratio of the output to the input.
How does the ideal compare with the actual mechanical advantage?
The actual mechanical advantage is usually less, due to losses.
If the input force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage is less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
If the output force is less than the input force of a simple machine the mechanical advantage less than one?
it means the mechanical advantage is greater.
Can a inclined plane have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
The mechanical advantage of an inclined plane is equal to length divided by height (l/h). Therefore, if the length is less than than the height, the mechanical advantage would be less than one.
Why are third class levers used if their mechanical advantage is less that one?
Mechanical advantage is not the only reason to use levers.
What increases when you have a mechanical advantage of less than 1?
2
Why is the actual mechanical advantage of an inclined plane alwaysess than the theoretical mechanical advantage?
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call an estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher
What is the formula to find mechanical advantage?
The mechanical advantage that a machine would have without friction or in another term is that you can find the IDEAL MECHANICAL ADVANTAGE (IMA) OF A MACHINE IS BY HAVING A MACHINE WITH NO FRICTION, ALSO BY MULTIPLYING YOUR EFFORT FORCE BY 2, HOWEVER BECAUSE OF FRICTION AND THE WEIGHT THE ACTUAL MA WILL BE LESS.
When you are solving for mechanical advantage what units did the final answer require?
None. Mechanical advantage is a ratio of two measures each of which has the same units and so it is a unit-less number.
