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The Allied Forces were tottally unfair in the reparations towards Germany, which is what mainly caused World War Two to start. During the Reparations, Germany was demilaritized, had no army, was split in half and etc.. All of these reparations were made and passed without Germany even present when the reparations were made.

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Q: Why might Germany be angry over reparations?
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When did Germany stop paying reparations?

Its was 1923 :P The same year that Hitler took over German government....but he faailed and got sent to prison insted. :) -----------------------> No -it's the wrong answer above; Hitler never took over the German govt. in 1923. Germany stopped paying Versailles reparations in 1931 - before the Nazis took power in 1933.


How did the Treaty of Versailles contribute to the rise of fascism in Italy?

It had caused Germany to grow resentment towards England and France for placing the treaty of Versailles on Germany limiting its army and having it pay for all the damages caused by the war. this had caused many Germans to be angry at the allies and that allow for the rise of Hitler who also hated the treaty.


Why did Allied insist that Germany pay reparations for the war?

they demanded money because first of all, Germany killed alot of free nch soldiers and destroyed houses, industry and the french wanted to revenge. basically they made Germany accept the war guilt.: ReparationsDemanding money (reparations) from a defeated enemy wasn't some new idea that arose in WW1. It's been done in many peace treaties. Germany had demanded and got a substantial sum from France in 1871, for example; Napoleon had made Prussia pay France a large sum in 1807. In WW1 the Germans demanded a huge sum from Russia following its defeat. That tends to be forgotten. The purpose of repararations is often twofold: (1) to satisfy greed and (2) in order to weaken the defeated country further, over and above the military defeat. JonceyThe allies demanded money from Germany because Germany had killed lots of french soldiers and destroyed France.Also because Both France and Britain thought that Germany should pay for the whole war that had just happened,just because they thought Germany was guilty for all the damage!And we all know a war can not be caused and fought by one country!Jhna15


How far did the weimar republic recover after 1923?

Weimar-Germany recovered from its problems in 1928 by agreeing to pay reparations as well as bringing workers back to work and ending passive resistance. The workers were no longer on strike. Gustav Stresseman helped Germany recover from hyper-inflation by changing the currency, agreeing to pay reparations, and borrowing money from America. The Dawes Plan was a huge achievement to Germany as they were given longer to pay reparations which meant the amount they had to pay each year was less. Also the Young Plan decreased the amount Germany had to pay because everyone had better relationships with Germany. A new government was formed and Germany was paying reparations as foreign banks were lending them money and America was lending huge loans to Germany, over 800 million. This meant Germany had more then enough to pay back reparations. Germany also invested in a new economy and built new machinery, buildings, hospitals, schools, factories. Germany became a lot richer and the industry took off. By 1928 they were producing the same amount as they had before the war, by 1929 they were producing 33% more then before the war. Germany was the most successful economy and had the fastest recovery than either Britain or France. Factory workers' pay increased hugely and their working conditions improved as well. All of their success were because of American loans, however the loans could be called back at any time. Germany had recovered from all of its problems by 1928 and was doing just as well as they had before the war. However as all of their successes were because of loans, Germany was at risk and as Stresemann said "Germany was dancing on a volcano"


Why did Germany have to pay reparations for the Treaty of Versailles?

After World War I the treaty of Versaille stated that Germany was responsible for the war and thefore had to pay reparations to the winning nations like France. So you could say that the reparations were enforced on Germany after the war.

Related questions

When were Germany payment reparations set to begin and what was the date which they were required to fulfill?

Germany was set to pay $367 billion. Germany was set to pay reparations over the next 30 years.


When were the reparations set to begin and what was the date which they were required to fulfill?

Germany was set to pay $367 billion. Germany was set to pay reparations over the next 30 years.


Was Germany made to pay for World War 1 after it was over?

yes reparations were required


Why did France and Britain demand reparations from Germany?

After world war one countries from all over the world held a peace conference in paris. (Germany was not invited) the countries decided that it was Germany's fault for causing WW1 and they had caused the most damage during this period. they then forced Germany to sign the treaty of Versailles. in this document it said that Germany must pay reparations for their actions etc.


Which country was suffering over war debt post World War 1?

Germany because their government, the Weimar Republic, signed the Treaty of Versailles, blaming Germany for all of WWI and making them pay reparations.


When did Germany stop paying reparations?

Its was 1923 :P The same year that Hitler took over German government....but he faailed and got sent to prison insted. :) -----------------------> No -it's the wrong answer above; Hitler never took over the German govt. in 1923. Germany stopped paying Versailles reparations in 1931 - before the Nazis took power in 1933.


How did the Treaty of Versailles contribute to the rise of fascism in Italy?

It had caused Germany to grow resentment towards England and France for placing the treaty of Versailles on Germany limiting its army and having it pay for all the damages caused by the war. this had caused many Germans to be angry at the allies and that allow for the rise of Hitler who also hated the treaty.


How did Germany pay for World War 2?

Monetarily? They didn't pay reparations to any of the allied nations that fought against them. But if you're speaking of the price they "payed" for trying to take over Europe... Germany was forced to divide their land and give it to the nations they fought against.


What does a horse do when it is angry?

Mostly, pin its ears back. It might swing its but over and attempt to kick at the thing bothering it.


What did France want to get out of the treaty after World War 1?

Anything and everything they could get from Germany. They gained millions of dollars in reparations, control of the Alsace-Lorraine, control of all of Germany's industrial districts for fifteen years as well as control over their natral resources. This eventually put Germany in an economic depression leading to WW2


How did Adolf Hitler's actions in the early 1930s directly defy the Treaty of Versailles?

Group of answer choices A. He rebuilt the country's military. B. He took over small countries on Germany's borders. C. He accepted Germany's responsibility for starting World War I. D. He forced Germany to pay reparations to countries like Britain.


Why was Germany so sad by the treaty of versilles?

Basically the Treaty of Versailles stated that Germany had to take full responsibility for the outbreak of World War I. In the Treaty, Germany was forced to pay $33 billion in reparations to the countries affected by the war. Germany was also required to give up most of its colonies that it had control over prior to WWI. So, I suppose these events would make Germany very sad...