answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

Philip II of the ancient Greek kingdom of Macedonia, never conquered Greece. He brought the Greek states together, some by diplomacy and negotiations, others by force and united Greece under Macedonian Hegemony.
As the eminent historian J. B. Bury writes:

  • As the hegemony or first place among Greek states had passed successively from Athens to Sparta, and to Thebes, so now it passed to Macedon. The statement that Greek liberty perished on the plain of Chaeronea is as true or as false as that it perished on the field of Leuctra or the strand of the Goat's River. Whenever a Greek state became supreme, that supremacy entailed the depression of some states and the dependency or subjection of others. Athens was reduced to a secondary place by Macedon, and Thebes fared still worse; but we must not forget what Sparta, in the day of her triumph, did to Athens, or the more evil things which Thebes proposed.
User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

AnswerBot

6mo ago

Philip of Macedon was able to attack the Greek city-states for several reasons. First, he implemented a highly organized and disciplined military, which gave him an advantage over the less coordinated Greek forces. Second, he used diplomacy and strategic alliances to weaken his enemies. Lastly, he took advantage of political instability and rivalries among the city-states to exploit their internal divisions.

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why was Philip able to attack the Greek city-states?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Continue Learning about General History

Why wasn't Philip II of Macedonia able to undertake an invasion of Asia?

Philip was assassinated by his personal bodyguard Pausanias of Orestis. Alexander took his place as king of the Greek kingdom of Macedonia and hegemon of a united Greece on the campaign against Persia.


What countries did King Philip II of Macedonia conquered?

Philip II never conquered any countries. What he did do was unite the Greek city states so that upon his death his successor Alexander the Great was able to take on and defeat the Persian army and ultimately the entire empire.


How was Philip ii able to conquer Athens so easily?

Philip II united Greece under Macedonian Hegemony.Philip II, king of the ancient Greek kingdom of Macedonia located in the northern Greek peninsula, united the Greek city-states under his hegemony so that he could lead a campaign to conquer Persia. Whenever a Greek state became supreme, that supremacy entailed the depression of some states and the dependency or subjection of others. As the eminent historian, J.B. Bury writes, "Athens was reduced to a secondary place by Macedon, and Thebes fared still worse; As the hegemony or first place among Greek states had passed successively from Athens to Sparta, and to Thebes, so now it passed to Macedon".Philip II of Macedon, the father of Alexander the Great, was able to unite Greece through a combination of diplomatic and military skills along with good fortune. His tactical and strategic skills may be most important, yet it should be noted that he made use of favorable alliances when most advantageous to Macedon. The disunity of Greek city-states further contributed to their demise and Philip's success. After Philip II's assassination, his famous son Alexander the Great would take the united Greek army on to conquer the Persian empire all the way to India.


How was Philip II ableto defeat the Greeks?

Phillip II defeated the Greeks at the Battle of Chaeronea in 338 BCE.


Why were tyrants able to seize control from Greek to nobles?

the tyrants were able to seize power from the nobles because they had the help and support of the Greek farmers, merchants, and the artisans.

Related questions

Why wasn't Philip II of Macedonia able to undertake an invasion of Asia?

Philip was assassinated by his personal bodyguard Pausanias of Orestis. Alexander took his place as king of the Greek kingdom of Macedonia and hegemon of a united Greece on the campaign against Persia.


What countries did King Philip II of Macedonia conquered?

Philip II never conquered any countries. What he did do was unite the Greek city states so that upon his death his successor Alexander the Great was able to take on and defeat the Persian army and ultimately the entire empire.


Who was able to gain control of Greece?

Philip of Macedonia.


How was Philip ii able to conquer Athens so easily?

Philip II united Greece under Macedonian Hegemony.Philip II, king of the ancient Greek kingdom of Macedonia located in the northern Greek peninsula, united the Greek city-states under his hegemony so that he could lead a campaign to conquer Persia. Whenever a Greek state became supreme, that supremacy entailed the depression of some states and the dependency or subjection of others. As the eminent historian, J.B. Bury writes, "Athens was reduced to a secondary place by Macedon, and Thebes fared still worse; As the hegemony or first place among Greek states had passed successively from Athens to Sparta, and to Thebes, so now it passed to Macedon".Philip II of Macedon, the father of Alexander the Great, was able to unite Greece through a combination of diplomatic and military skills along with good fortune. His tactical and strategic skills may be most important, yet it should be noted that he made use of favorable alliances when most advantageous to Macedon. The disunity of Greek city-states further contributed to their demise and Philip's success. After Philip II's assassination, his famous son Alexander the Great would take the united Greek army on to conquer the Persian empire all the way to India.


How was Philip II ableto defeat the Greeks?

Phillip II defeated the Greeks at the Battle of Chaeronea in 338 BCE.


How was Philip able to defeat the Greeks?

By superior force, strategy and tactics.


What is a splicing attack?

A type of attack where an intruder is able to forge a biometric sample


What type of attack where an intruder is able to forge a biometic sample?

Splicing Attack


Why would Philip of Macedonia want to wage war against the Persians?

The nominal rallying cry was to revenge the Persian invasion of the Greek mainland nearly 150 years earlier (!) In reality, ambitious Philip understood the weakness of the over-extended Persian Empire and saw it ripe for the picking. When he had established control of the Greek world in Europe, he was able to use the rallying cry of vengeance and freeing the Greek cities in Asia to get the manpower backing of the Greeks to augment his limited Macedonian forces. His assassination saw his young son Alexander take over the project, which he carried out successfully.


If you activate call of the haunted to get sangan and your opponent activates royal decree will sangan still be able to attack?

No part of Call of the Haunted or Royal Decree affect a monster's ability to attack. The Sangan will be able to attack as normal.


What were some of the major factors that contributed to Greek defeat against the invading armies of Philip II?

The Peloponnesian War and the subsequent ongoing wars between the city states led by Sparta and Thebes had exhausted the Greek city-states. Sparta's remaining military force was restricted to trying to maintain control of its territory. Athens had shrunk from losses to the plague and the wars. As a result Philip was able to defeat their combined forces at the battle of Chaeronaea. Also Philip bribed the lesser cities of the Amphyctionic League to push his side of arguments. The cities were reduced to accepting Philip as Hegemon (leader) of Greece. After his murder, there was an uprising, but Alexander took control and put it down and destroyed Thebes and sold its population into slavery as a warning to the other cities.


Why were nobles able to seize control from Greek nobles?

the tyrants were able to seize power from the nobles because they had the help and support of the Greek farmers, merchants, and the artisans.