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What else can I help you with?
Why did Lincoln only include certain slaves in the Emancipation Proclamation?
Because he was keen not to upset the people of Kentucky, Missouri, Maryland and Delaware - slave states that had stayed loyal.
Why did the emancipation proclamation not apply to slave in union state?
Because Lincoln didn't want to upset powerful slave-owners in the border states and drive them into the arms of the Confederacy.
Why did lincolns emancipation proclamation free slaves only in the south?
Because he didn't want to upset powerful slave-owners in the border states, and drive them into the arms of the Confederacy. Answer 2: Lincoln's Emancipation Proclamation was intended to make a statement that the war was intended to end slavery. There were many factors involved with the cause of the war however, he wanted to focus on ending slavery. He felt this would rally more people behind their cause. Interesting that the Emancipation Proclamation did not really free any slave when it was signed. If a slave was living in a Southern state then the Proclamation had no effect until the Union army took over control of that area. There were a few examples of people in the Northern states who still owned slaves for a few years after the proclamation was released.
Who was NOT freed by emancipation proclamation?
Nobody is freed by a Proclamation - only by a law. The Proclamation declared that slaves in the Confederate states were 'thenceforward and forever free' - meaning that Union troops on enemy soil were allowed to liberate any slaves they found. And by implication, that if the Union eventually won the war, and if the same Republican government was still in power, there would be moves to make slavery illegal. The same Proclamation did not affect the four slave-states that had remained loyal to the Union. Lincoln had no wish to upset the people of these 'buffer' states and drive tem into the arms of the Confederacy. This also reminds us that Lincoln was not an abolitionist. He had rejected the final compromise, not in pursuit of abolition, but only because it would have allowed some new slave-states.
Why were southerners upset about Lincolns election?
because they thought that he was going to keep slavery
Why doesn't the Emancipation Proclamation declare immediate freedom for all people held as slaves?
Because Lincoln has to be careful not to upset slave-owners in the four border-states that have remained loyal. Otherwise those states may fall into the arms of the Confederacy.
Why were the Colonists upset when the British taxed them with the Proclamation of 1763?
I know this one! Our class just learned it like a few weeks ago. The colonists were upset when the British taxed them with the Proclamation of 1763 because they thought it was unfair.
Abolitionist were most upset about provision in the compromise of 1850?
its mostly because of the fugitive slave act.
Why were the abolitionist upset about the dred Scott decision?
they said that he was a piece of property and could not sue for his freedom
What did the emancipation proclamation affect and who didnt it affect?
It applied to slaves in the states that were in rebellion (where, of course, Lincoln had no authority at that time). It did not apply to slaves in the four slave-states that had remained loyal. Lincoln did not want to upset powerful slave-owners in these states, and drive them into the arms of the Confederacy.
Did the emancipation proclamation cause problems?
It worked in that it provided a symbolic gesture. As written, it applied only to those regions that were AT THAT TIME in rebellion against the Union. If they were in rebellion, they were not going to what the Union government told them to do. Slavery was not outlawed until the 13th Amendment to the Constitution was enacted in December 1865- about 2 years after the proclamation, and 8 months after Lincoln was dead.
Who was upset by the Proclamation on 1763?
colonist didn't like the law so they just ignored it
