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Q: Why were the Europeans more advanced?
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Why was the Europeans were able to dominate much of south and southeast Asia in the 19th and 20th centuries primarily because?

They were able to dominate much of south and southeast Asia because the Europeans had more advanced technology


Why were the Muslims more advanced than the western europeans?

I don't believe that Muslims were ever more advanced than Western Europeans. Perhaps during the Dark Ages, when Europe was basically isolated from the entire world and basically frozen in time.


Why couldn't the Indians' natural disease hurt the Europeans as much as the Europeans' illnesses extinguished the Native Americans?

Europeans be more biologically advanced than them ignorant sky worshipping Indians. Indian populations were more isolated.


Why were europeans nations able to conquer large sections of Africa in the early 19th and 20th century?

Europeans possessed more advanced military technology.


How was it possible for the Europeans to take over a continent more than 3 times the size of Europe in 30years?

Europeans have been the most technologically advanced and most weapon advanced since the start of imperialism. They mostly took over the Americas, Africa, and Oceania. The natives to these lands were not technologically advanced or familiar with the Europeans' powerful weapons. The Europeans were able to take over very easily because there was basically no challenge. However, as time went by, the natives started acquiring such weapons themselves, usually by the Europeans themselves, and more and more countries started becoming independent.


Why do east Europeans travel to west Europe?

Western Europe is more advanced than Eastern Europe. Western Europeans earn larger wages, have a better life expectancy and standard of living, and are more technologically advanced. This is why many Eastern Europeans either migrate or just travel to Europe, for a better life or to see their Western counterparts and experience that life for a while.


Why were European nations able to conquer large parts of Africa?

Europeans possessed more advanced military technology.


Were the Europeans inheritably superior to the native populations they encountered?

No, they weren't. It's true that the Europeans had better technologies in most cases, but they weren't necessarily more culturally, genetically advanced.


How were the Europeans able to conquer the Aztec and Inca?

They were more advanced and had better weapons. The Europeans also unknowingly brought diseases to the native people, greatly weakening their civilizations and armies.


How were the europeans able to conquer the Aztecs and Incas?

They were more advanced and had better weapons. The Europeans also unknowingly brought diseases to the native people, greatly weakening their civilizations and armies.


Why were the Europeans able to conquer the Aztecs?

Because they where way more advanced than the Aztecs and they had support from nearby tribes that hated the Aztecs.


Why were pre columbian civilizations less advanced than europeans?

Because the didn't have all the advanced and great explorers that Europe had.