Did your deceased uncle leave a will? He may have left some instruction as to who inherits his stake in the house. If he didn't, then yes, his wife will inherit his stake in the house, despite the fact that you have made the payments for the past four years (although you can ask her to make her share of the payments).
income taxes ? no insurance payments are exempt
is there any help out there to help make house payments
This depends on how the house is titled and who is responsible for the mortgage payment. It can be foreclosed on if payments are defaulted the lender does not choose to reaffirm the loan. Or if the exemption does not protect the property, the Trustee can petition for a forced sale.
You will deal with all the payments unless the house was in her name or she left money for you. The insurance purchased to secure the mortgage should pay out.
yes you are responsible for the payments because you are married it is a marital asset being bought after you were married so in a legal sense its in both your names regardless of the way its titled
At the discretion of the lender, a house can be foreclosed after a period of missing payments.
He could only have claim to the portion of the house that was paid for with marital property. Meaning that if for those six months the mortgage was paid for out of a joint account, he could have a right to the equity generated by those payments.
It means that you have to make monthly payments on your house.
Please see the link below titled: "How To Open A Halfway House In The United States.
No. If both of your names are on the loan and paperwork, then you both have legal ownership of the house. It can't just be claimed by one person. Well.....the loan was made and the house was built prior to our marriage. His exwife signed a quitclaim on it when they divorced. He never changed any paperwork or wanted to when we married even though monthly house payments were still being made. During our 10 year marriage, marital monies were used to make house payments for around 4 years. Then he paid off the house with some money he inherited. He believes in the event of a divorce that I will have no legal claim on the value of the house because he has paid for the most of it and because my name is not on the loan papers or the deed. So...I am wondering if I would have any legal claims against the value of the house in the event of a divorce.
The way the property is titled determines who takes ownership. If the property is titled as Joint Tenants or Joint Tenants With Right of Survivorship, the surviving person(s) named on the deed receive the entire property and it is not subject to probate distribution. If the property is titled as Tenants-In-Common, it is subject to probate distribution as required under the laws of the state in which the property is located.
If you have proof of those payments, such as canceled checks, you should file a claim for those expenses with the court. If you paid all the property taxes you should also add that expense to the list. You should ask the court that you be reimbursed for at least half of the amount you paid. The court will decide if you have a valid claim.