There is a variance.
Fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance is?
Total Manufacturing Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Factory Overheads Prime Cost = Direct material + Direct Labor Conversion Cost = Direct Labor + Factory Overhead So yes prime cost and conversion cost is equal to total manufacturing cost
The total manufacturing costs for the period
There question is incomplete:There is no variable cost given for manufacturing method B. I'll assume it is b.It is unclear as to quantity for which the cost of manufacturing by both methods is the same. I'll assume it is the break-even quantity.The break even point is when the revenue from sales = cost of manufactureSo the question is asking for what quantity is the cost of manufacture using method A equal to the cost of manufacture using method B.cost of manufacture = fixed cost + variable cost × quantityMethod A: manufacturing cost = 40,000 + 23 × quantityMethod B: manufacturing cost = 52,000 + b × quantity→ 40,000 + 23 × quantity = 52,000 + b × quantity→ 23 × quantity - b × quantity = 52,000 - 40,000→ quantity(23 - b) = 12,000→ quantity = 12,000/(23 - b)I'll let you fill in the value of b; if b has no variable cost, b = 0.
Total Debit should equal to Total Debit at all times.
Fixed manufacturing overhead budget variance is?
manufacturing supplies is equal to factory overhead
It's because the POHR is only an estimate. Both the cost driver and the estimated total manufacturing overhead costs in the ratio are based on past figures. You don't know what it will actually be for the year until the actual costs come in when the year is over. Obviously, the estimate won't exactly equal the actual. When it is over or under applied you must do a correcting journal entry. If overhead were over applied by 30,000 for example, you would debit Manufacturing overhead for the amount and credit COGS
Total Manufacturing Cost = Direct Material + Direct Labor + Factory Overheads Prime Cost = Direct material + Direct Labor Conversion Cost = Direct Labor + Factory Overhead So yes prime cost and conversion cost is equal to total manufacturing cost
impulse
The voltage is greater than the applied voltage, why?
According to Newton's 2nd law of motion, both the basketball and baseball would travel the same distance if equal force were applied to them. This is because the acceleration of an object is directly proportional to the force applied to it, assuming the masses of the two objects are the same.
The impulse experienced by a body is equal to the change in its momentum. This means that when an external force is applied to an object, its momentum changes, causing the object to experience an impulse in the direction of the force applied.
The amount of force applied to an object over a certain amount of time is equal to its impulse, which is the product of force and time. Impulse helps to quantify the change in momentum of an object due to the force applied to it over a period of time.
Yes for a closed circuit
It is the impulse which equals the change in momentum.
The total manufacturing costs for the period