answersLogoWhite

0


Best Answer

The point of using a grandfather clause was to allow literacy tests to be conducted for voting but not to deny the right to vote for those who's ancestors had the right to vote before the literacy tests were created.

User Avatar

Wiki User

13y ago
This answer is:
User Avatar
More answers
User Avatar

Wiki User

9y ago

The term "grandfather clause" was invented in the late 19th century by U.S. southern states. They wanted to pass literacy and property restrictions on voting to prevent poor and illiterate African Americans (former slaves) and their children from voting. However, they didn't want to deny poor or illiterate whites from voting, so they had inserted a "grandfather clause," which exempted those whose ancestors (grandfathers) had the right to vote before the Civil War.

Source: Wikipedia

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

7y ago

A grandfather clause is a provision when an old rule continues to apply to some existing situations while the new rule will apply to all future cases. Those exempt from the new rule are said to have grandfather rights or acquired rights. Slaves were the target because the old rule found they weren't citizens and couldn't vote, so it was applied to a new law.

This answer is:
User Avatar

User Avatar

Wiki User

12y ago

The purpose of the Grandfather Clauses used by some states after the Civil War is to deny voting rights to African Americans

This answer is:
User Avatar

Add your answer:

Earn +20 pts
Q: Why did some southern states sometimes use a grandfather clause?
Write your answer...
Submit
Still have questions?
magnify glass
imp
Related questions

What region or regions did the grandfather clause exist?

In southern states


What were southern states attempting to do by passing the grandfather clause?

Disfranchise it


In what region did the grandfather clause exist?

The grandfather clause existed in the southern United States, specifically in states that implemented discriminatory voting restrictions against African Americans after the Reconstruction period. It allowed individuals to vote if their ancestors had been eligible to vote before the Civil War, effectively disenfranchising African Americans.


What was the southern states attempting to do by passing the grandfather clause?

They were trying to prevent black southern men from being able to vote.


Southern states sometimes used a grandfather clause to allow them to?

Southern states sometimes used a grandfather clause to allow them to exempt individuals from literacy tests and poll taxes if their ancestors had voted prior to the Civil War. This effectively disenfranchised Black citizens while allowing poor and illiterate whites to continue voting.


What was added to the constitutions of several southern states to enable white people to vote who may have been kept from doing so by other restrictions?

Grandfather Clause


What was added to the constitution of several Southern states to enable white people to vote who may have been kept from doing so by other restrictions?

Grandfather Clause


Who woufirst person in the family line who could vote under the grandfather clause( the mans son or grandson)?

I think you misunderstand the term "grandfather clause ". It was a statute enacted by the southern states in reconstruction that allowed potential white voters to bypass literacy tests, poll taxes, and other things to stop African Americans from voting. It had nothing to do with family lines.


How did southern stated top Africa Americans from voting after the 15th amendment was passed?

Southern states instituted poll taxes (where someone has to pay to vote), literacy tests (where someone has to read and sometimes explain part of the Constitution or another government document) and grandfather clauses, which mean that you are only eligible to vote if your grandfather was.


The three-fifths clause gave southern states the right to count each slave as?

citizens


Is there a grandfather clause for student loans prior to legislation to garnish social security benefits?

Absolutely not.See Lockhart vs. United States.


What had to be practiced in order to get the southern states to sign the constitution?

Slavery. Initially Jefferson wrote a clause outlawing slavery but it was too unpopular and the Framers were worried it wouldn't be ratified by the southern states.