each sperm cell could either have the dominant or the recessive allele for that trait
As long as you aren't talking about a trait or gene that behaves co-dominately or some other exception, the man would have the dominant trait show up and his alleles would be dominant and recessive (or Dd if you are using letter symbols for the alleles- upper case being the dominant allele from the mom's egg and lower case for the recessive allele from the dad's sperm). So for example if we are talking about the gene for earlobes we can use the letter E to represent the two alleles or genetic variations: E for un-attached earlobes and e for attached earlobes. A sex cell (sperm or egg) has one allele each so that when they unite to make an embryo the new person has 2 alleles- one from each parent. So if the man inherited a dominant allele E from his mom and a recessive allele e from his father then he would have Ee as his "genotype"(what alleles he has). His "phenotype" is what trait he shows, which would be what ever is dominant-- in this case E equals un-attached earlobes.
Sperm cells are haploid as they contain half the original starting material from the parent cell.
Mendel started out with plants that "bred true". That is, when tall plants were self-pollinated (or cross-pollinated with others like them), plants in following generations were all tall; when the short plants were self-pollinated (or cross- pollinated with others like them) the plants in following generations were all short.
the sperm and the egg
No. Egg and Sperm gametes actually have half the number of chromosomes as the cells of the parent organism.
If a man has the genotype Tt, then he is heterozygous. Homozygous would be TT or tt. If a man has Tt, then he can either donate a T or a t to the sperm, but not both.
A stallion's sperm carries a representative sample of all the stallion's alleles. Each sperm will have 50% (1N) of the stallion's 2N complement of alleles.
Only one allele of that gene. remember, meiosis halves the genetic material so that in sperm and egg there is a haploid count and only half the genetic material is passed on to the children; one half from each parent is is proper in sexually reproducing species. ( generally )
sperm
sperm
-Each Parent Only Contributes One Allele Because It Only Need Half Of Each Allele To Make The Offspring. If The Same Person Gave All Of There Alleles It Would Be The Exact Same.
one-half
Sperm cells are haploid as they contain half the original starting material from the parent cell.
As long as you aren't talking about a trait or gene that behaves co-dominately or some other exception, the man would have the dominant trait show up and his alleles would be dominant and recessive (or Dd if you are using letter symbols for the alleles- upper case being the dominant allele from the mom's egg and lower case for the recessive allele from the dad's sperm). So for example if we are talking about the gene for earlobes we can use the letter E to represent the two alleles or genetic variations: E for un-attached earlobes and e for attached earlobes. A sex cell (sperm or egg) has one allele each so that when they unite to make an embryo the new person has 2 alleles- one from each parent. So if the man inherited a dominant allele E from his mom and a recessive allele e from his father then he would have Ee as his "genotype"(what alleles he has). His "phenotype" is what trait he shows, which would be what ever is dominant-- in this case E equals un-attached earlobes.
Definitely not....sperm can live in a woman's body for 6 day's, possibly even 7!
Mendel started out with plants that "bred true". That is, when tall plants were self-pollinated (or cross-pollinated with others like them), plants in following generations were all tall; when the short plants were self-pollinated (or cross- pollinated with others like them) the plants in following generations were all short.
Sperm cells are haploid as they contain half the original starting material from the parent cell.