The state will not transfer title without the signatures of all owners of the car, as far as I know. You can contact your state's Dept. of Motor Vehicles and see if you could sell 1/2 interest in the car without the other owner's permission, but I don't think they would allow it.
I don't think so not without their approval.
The co-owner of the Pequod was Captain Peleg.
No, a joint owner cannot rent a property without the consent of the other owner.
The primary and cosigner on a car note are equal owners. Neither has the "right of ownership" over the other. This is a common misconception. Both may not benefit from the transaction, but both will be negatively affected if the note is not paid.
You would not be able to sell the home without the owner knowing, but unless your mortagage includes a clause forbidding it, you could rent the home to another party.
You cannot make any changes to the other owner's interest in the property without that owner's consent and signature. For example, if you sell the property the grantee will only receive your own one-half interest.
Yes, one co-owner can stop the other co-owner from having or moving people in the home.
No. Namely, because the car wasn't stolen - it was taken back by the rightful owner (the financier), via a repossession agent. It's not the financier's fault - nor the repo agent's - that you neglected to make your payments.
Another word for the primary owner in a company is "stakeholder." Other terms that can be used include "proprietor" or "shareholder," depending on the context of ownership and involvement in the business.
I believe no
No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.No. Every owner by deed has the right to the use and possession of the property. The other owner(s) does not have the right to "oust" them without a court order.
Yes, without a doubt. The owner bares the true responsibility.