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In the event (as I believe you are asking) you received the vehicle in the divorce settlment, and then the vehicle was repossessed, AND your exhusband was on the loan as the primary or cosigner, AND the lender has gone after him and secured some sort of payment (either voluntary or by garnishee), then yes. You contracted to pay the note. You received the vehilce by civil judgment (the divorce), that fact does not negate your responsibility on the original note, and if he has suffered damages due to your failure, then he can sue you and win.

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15y ago

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Do you have to payoff a car repossession?

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