Mechanical Advantage = Effort/Load
In real machines, there is always friction that reduces the efficiency of the machine.This reduces the mechanical advantage because some of the input force has to be used to overcome the force of friction in the machine.To reduce friction in the machine, you could add a lubricant such as oil.
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.
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They can't uless some parts are hidden from inspection.
its available in some universities. some other universities offers BE in mechanical engg.
In real machines, there is always friction that reduces the efficiency of the machine.This reduces the mechanical advantage because some of the input force has to be used to overcome the force of friction in the machine.To reduce friction in the machine, you could add a lubricant such as oil.
This is because the actual mechanical advantage is the actual calculation found after dividing the effort force by the output force. Ideal mechanical advantage is what many people would call and estimate. When estimating mechanical advantage, the numbers are always rounded. This makes actual mechanical advantage less. Sources: Science teacher ------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ The answer above is incorrect. The ideal mechanical advantage (IMA) is usually less than the mechanical advantage (MA) in a given machine because of the friction acting on the machine. There will always be some frictional resistance that increases the effort necessary to do the work.
Wear and tear of moving parts would be reduced. Less energy would be needed to run the machine, as there would be less friction to be overcome. A well lubricated machine is more efficient than a neglected machine with unoiled parts.
No, not all levers have a mechanical advantage. The mechanical advantage of a lever depends on the specific positions of the effort, load, and fulcrum. Some levers may have a mechanical advantage of less than 1, resulting in a decrease in force but an increase in distance.
Some examples of linked second-class levers include a wheelbarrow and a bottle opener. In these systems, the resistance is between the fulcrum and the effort force, which allows for a mechanical advantage to be gained.
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Decades of precise and repeatable experiments have failed to find a case in whichthey are not equal. Some observers have gone so far as to suggest that it is a lawof nature that these two quantities are in fact always equal, and that their equivalenceis quite independent of the efficiency of the machine.==========================================================Exactly ! The theoretical Mechanical Advantage that you would expect orlike to get is termed the "Ideal Mechanical Advantage", and the asker asked"When is the ideal ... equal to the ideal ... ?" I claim that this singlequantityis equal to itself always and under all conditions, and I said so in my response.To take up the matter of what M.A. you would actually realize in a real-worldmechanical system is entirely beyond the letter of the question. I strive at alltimes to avoid answering a question that was not asked. In other words, whenI respond to the Question "What time is it ?", I resist the instinct to describethe history, design, manufacture, and home construction of clocks.As you so perceptively point out, the question is meaningless. I tried to deliveran answer that responded appropriately.
No relation. Mechanical advantage is a ratio (between the force applied to the mechanism and the external force provided by you ). Efficiency is the fraction of energy actually useful after taking into acount frictional losses etc.
a Mercury thermometera mechanical thermostat
It may be good in some cases. A high mechanical advantage comes at a cost - you need to apply less force, but you need to apply it over a greater distance.
If the pulley is fixed to the ceiling and the rope passes over it, then the ideal MA is 1, but there's some friction loss in it. If one end of the rope is fixed to the ceiling and the load hangs from the pulley, then the ideal MA is 2.
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