Can an indirect object be a direct object?

Answer 1

no an indirect obj must come between the subject and direct obj

From Kenwg:

Actually, the direct object usually comes between the subject and the indirect object.

Consider: "He gave the ball to us"

He = subject

gave = verb

the ball = direct object

to = preposition

us = indirect object pronoun.

Of course, you could say "He gave us the ball", in which case the positions of the direct and indirect objects are indeed reversed - "us", the indirect object, is between the subject and the direct object. But it is not correct to say the either "must" come in one position or the other.

In Kenwg's first example, "to us" is a prepositional phrase, and "us" is a prepositional object rather than an indirect object.

To the original questioner, I'm not sure. The best I can come up with off the top of my head is something like "John showed Dick[IO] Dick[DO].", where John might be holding a mirror up; but that has both objects being the same fellow. I don't believe an indirect object can actually be a direct object—not without being specified separately.

See also Russell's paradox.

The indirect object always goes before the direct object. The order shows which is the direct or indirect.

The indirect object can be changed into a phrase beginning to or for .

Answer 2

No.

I gave the bone to the dog.

I gave it to him.

It is the direct object whereas to him is the indirect object.

Actually, it really depends on three things. A, the indirect object must be placed before the direct object in a sentence without a preposition. Ex. She bought him a present (not, She bought him to a present, or for a present, but the later might give you ideas). B, the indirect object must come second in a sentence if you have a preposition. Ex. He sent the present to Sara, (not, He sent Sara to the present, unless this is a time warp film). C, if the direct object is a pronoun it must come first and you also must use a pronoun. We gave it to her. (not "We gave her it," or "we gave her to it," because the first is nonsense, and in the second, a creepy clown receives her.)

Answer 3

No, the indirect object comes first.

Example: "Billy hit me the ball." "Me" is the indirect object, and "ball" is the direct object. If you wrote "Billy hit the ball to me," "ball" is still the direct object, but there is no indirect object. "Me" becomes the object of the preposition "to" in the adverb phrase "to me."