The use of the pluperfect ("had been told") is to indicate action occurring earlier than some other action in the past tense. For example: I was told to wait, so I stood there. But: I was standing there because I had been told to wait.
A translator is written translation. And an interpreter is an oral translation.
It means the same but it's written different.... JK there has to be another difference, so just try researching online "been in" and "been to" cuz I don't feel like doin that 4 u... :) This is not necessarily correct, but I feel that been 'in' implies a much longer stay and a much greater immersion in the city. 'To' could simply mean a short visit. E.G. He has been in Rome for 10 years now. He has been to Rome for a holiday.
drew is past tense and drawn is been done a week ago
The only difference between organization and organization is the fact that one is written with a z and the other with an s. Americans spell organization with a z.
Vernacular is the common, spoken English as opposed to more formal, written English.
Much the same as the difference between to and in.
There is not a difference between the 80th percentile and been in the top 80. This is the same thing just written in different ways.
nothing just that it has been written differently
one has been on the end
had been is before and was is just there
Oral is spoken and written is read
One is spelled when written the other is numericly written.
The difference between written and unwritten consent is that one is actually written down on paper, and the other is an oral agreement.
a sound is sounded and a letter is written
Verbal communication is spoken, written is performed by writing or typing.
The difference between the 1938, 1959 and 1952 is that it has been progressively modernized.
The difference is that "has been" is grammatically correct. "Is been" does not work because "been" refers to the past while "is" refers to the present. "Has been" works because both "has" and "been" agree in tense.