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It is easy for anyone to state that they are unaware of a law, and if to say so was to aquit yourself of any crimes then it would be impossible to discern who was lying or not, unless there was specific evidence either way.
Also, since most laws are common interpretation of general moral or societal values, it is expected that most would understand what is right. Mistaking a law can sometimes excuse, providing you can prove that you were mistaken.
What else can I help you with?
What is the purpose of a questionnaire can you explain it to me like you would explain to a child?
Can some one answer please Can some one answer please
What is an example of a scientific law?
One example of scientific law, is The Law Of Gravity.
Why is evolution a law and natural selection a theory?
In science, a law is a rule of thumb describingobservations, and a theory a model explaining those observations. For example, if one observes that an apple drops to the floor each and every time one lets it go, one can formulate a law that says 'apples fall towards the ground'. One can then go on to formulate a theory to explain why apples fall towards the ground.Likewise, that life evolves is a simple observation: we see live changing, both in the smallest detail and in their overall morphology, everywhere we look. The law is therefore that life changes, that it evolves. Natural selection is part of the explanation for why and how life changes.
What are two types of scientific law?
One of them is the Law of Segregation or Seperation, but I don't know what the other one is I'll look it up on my Biology book
Compare how scientists use theories with how they use laws?
BASIC ANSWER>! Scientific law is proven (for the most part) and scientific theory is not proven yet."However scientific law is a law that cannot be broken and scientific theory is an attempt to explain a pattern or a rule repeadetly observed in nature".
Who is the author or the first to use the ignorance of the law excuses no one?
Hammurabi
What is the Latin term for Ignorance of the law excuses no one?
Ignorantia legis neminem excusat.
What is the Latin translation for ignorance of the law excuses no one?
The latin is ignorantia legis neminem escusat.
Who are exempted in article 3 of civil code of the Philippines?
No one is exempted because it is stated in the Article 3 of the Civil Code of the Philippines "Ignorance of the law EXCUSES NO ONE from compliance therewith."
Example of the law excuses no one?
Law excuses no one. Every citizen of the country is supposed to know law of his country. No cone can plead in the court of law that he is not aware about a certain Act or Law. This is no excused.
What is the 16 sub law of the law attraction?
ignorance revelation anticipation seeking decision discovery clearing outpicturing law of one mind release objective secrecy reserve nourishment resistance mastery
When will God run out of excuses?
Jehovah God does not need to produce excuses. He has no one to answer to. He is the Creator; and he can also be The Destroyer. Why would he waste time with excuses?
What is an example of how one law could explain all motion in the unverse?
Newton's F=ma is an example of a law that could explain all motion in the universe.
What does it meaning of ignorance of the law excuses no one?
"Ignorance of the law is no excuse" is a common phrase in the law. It means that if an individual breaks a law, they cannot defend themselves by claiming that they did not know that there was a law to be broken, or that they were breaking it.This topic is often tied in with "mens rea." Mens rea is a concept the law uses to describe a mental element of a crime. Often, a crime is defined as requiring that the individual have both committed the act of the crime (the "actus reus") and intended to commit the crime ("mens rea.") There was a time when criminals would claim that they did not intend to commit the crime, because they did not know that the act which they committed was a crime.This is why the law developed the concept that "ignorance of the law is no excuse." It creates an irrebutable presumptionthat every person knows what the law is, and that no one can claim that they did not have the mens rea because they did not know what the law is.
Can't blame everyone for one person ignorance?
No it's not logical to blame everyone else for one person's ignorance if anyone should be at fault for their ignorance it is their fault not everyone elses.
Can somebody explain Hess's Law and give an example of it?
no... because no one can explaine the hess'slaw
If a scientific law were developed in one country would it apply in a different country?
If a scientific law were developed in one country, would it apply in a different country? Explain your answer.
