South Carolina, which at that point was the San Miguel de Gualdape colony, had over 75,000 slaves total, which in 1700 was the largest relative to its overall population.
In 1860, around 25% of the Southern population owned slaves.
In 1860, about 32% of Southern families owned slaves, but the total percentage of the population in the South that owned slaves was around 25%. This means that a significant portion of the Southern population did not own slaves.
a third
north Carolina
Slaves represented a sizeable percentage of the population of the antebellum south. In the lower south, slaves represented 47% of the population. The total percentile in the upper south was 29%. The border states had a population of 13% of slaves against the total population.
Six of the nation's 24 largest cities and towns were located in states with few or no slaves in their population.
About a third
African slaves
South and Southeast. 35% of the population of the south was slave.
No, a large majority of the southern population did not own slaves. In fact, only a small percentage of white families in the southern states owned slaves during the antebellum period.
I believe that it was about 10% of the white population of the 19th century South that were slaveholders?