0
If Philip II had not been an absolute monarch, Spain might have experienced a more decentralized political structure, allowing for greater regional autonomy and potentially fostering a more diverse range of political thought and governance. This could have mitigated some of the internal conflicts and tensions that arose under his centralized rule, possibly leading to a more stable and prosperous society. Additionally, without absolute rule, Spain might have been more adaptable in responding to external challenges, such as the rise of Protestantism and competition from other European powers. Ultimately, a less autocratic Philip II could have altered Spain's trajectory in terms of both its domestic policies and its imperial ambitions.
What else can I help you with?
Was Philip the 2 an absolute monarch?
If you mean Philip II of Spain, then yes, he was definitely an absolute monarch. At that time, England was the only country in Europe with any kind of democratic or representational body to limit the king's (or queen's) power, and even they didn't have much power.
Was Juan Carlos the 1st a absolute monarch?
Juan Carlos I of Spain is not an absolute monarch. An absolute monarch rules absolutely, that is without restriction or encumbrance of any kind. Spain is a Parliamentary Monarchy in which the country is governed by an elected government.
Who was reigning monarch in the Spanish armada?
Queen Elizabeth in England and King Philip in Spain.
Which monarch sent the spanish armada and lost?
Philip ll of Spain
What was a common goal of Philip ii of Spain and Louis xiv of France?
maintain absolute power
How was Spain's government back then?
In 1813, Ferdinand became the king of Spain. The government's constitution was declared null and void, as the king intended to rule as an absolute monarch.
Ask us anythingWhich of these rulers is an example of an absolute monarch?
The Pope is an example of an absolute monarch as he is the ultimate head of the state of Vatican City, which is a tiny country, in fact the smallest country by area in the world located in Rome, Italy.
The English monarch married to the Spanish king in the 1550s was?
ap euro midterm? haha. Mary the first of England married Philip of Spain.
Philip II of Spain was known as what?
Philip II of Spain was known as Philip the Prudent
Why does the name Philippines acquired its present name?
The Philippines acquired its present name from the Spanish King Philip II of Spain, who was monarch at the time the Spanish conquered the islands.
How did Philip II rule Spain?
Philip II did control Spain. However he was married for seven years to Mary I of England. Many English hated this. He was given the duchy of Milan by Charles V, and the kingdoms of Naples and Sicily. He also had dominion over the Netherlands. With his third wife, he was given part of France. When his nephew died, he took over Portugal. (His mother was Portuguese royalty). His fourth wife was Austrian royalty. He married or was related by birth to far to many royal families. He chose not to learn any language but Spanish and this annoyed many people.
What is Philip V of Spain's birthday?
Philip V of Spain was born on December 19, 1683.
