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Here are answers and opinions: * The U.S. entered WWII as a result of a devastating surprise attack be Japan. Does logic permit the victim of an attack to have aggressive intent? * The US has never had an empire, at least not in the traditional sense of the word. * The US entered the war in Europe with no imperial intent, in anyone's interpretation. Unlike the Soviets, the US proved this by leaving Germany and its allies to govern themselves after the war. In the Pacific, it could be argued that the US wanted to preserve its "trading" empire, i.e. preserve open markets in Asia rather than let them be controlled by the Japanese Empire.

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