The white nations originally colonized Africa to stop the slave trade. The only way to stop it was by controlling the ports on the coast. If they controlled the ports, boats could not ship the slaves. Once they were there, they expanded their operations inland. They did not just remain in the ports. They stayed and even went in deeper into the continent long after slavery was eliminated throughout the Americas. The Americans have an expression: give an inch, they take a mile. Likewise, the arabs: The camel has his nose under the tent.
The British colonised parts of South Africa in the 1860's and 1870's.
no...Angola and Portugal are two different countries. Portugal is in Europe and Angola in Africa
The British settled in South Africa for many reasons: 1) Important stop over in spice route 2) Diamond and Gold mines 3) Sugar plantations 4) coal and iron-ore miness 5) some settled for big game hunting
Mali colonised by Italy so therefore they share language food and cultures. theres the logic yh yh
The Spanish.
See the related link.
dutch
No single country colonised West Africa. West Africa is composed of a number of countries that were colonised by the French, British and Spanish
to find / rule new land
twelve
South Africa was divided into the British and Dutch colonies
No single person can 'colonise' a country. Angola was colonised by Portuguese settlers.
The British colonised parts of South Africa in the 1860's and 1870's.
Nigeria was owned by Great Britian by 1950, but won its independance back by 1960.
Yes, South Africa was colonised by British, so i guess they occupied South Africa.
Morocco was colonised by France, as were many parts of Africa.
Most of Africa has been colonised by European countries at one time or another