elizabeth 1 and James 1
They are not the same now
Edward de Vere and William Shakespeare are two quite different people who lived in more or less the same place at approximately the same time. Even if he wrote everything credited to Shakespeare (and all the evidence there is on the subject, and there is quite a lot, says he didn't and Shakespeare did), he still would have been a different person from William Shakespeare. Edward de Vere is not Shakespeare in the same way that Nelson Mandela is not Barack Obama.
I'd guess that it would mean "Royal" or "Noble". Or something similar. It would have the same origins in the Latin language as the English word "regal" which also means "royal" or "befitting Royalty".
We have death records, and they show that the percentages of serfs, middle class, nobles, and royalty who died were all pretty much the same. In many places, people who lived in towns and cities were more likely to die than people who lived in the countryside. Also, in many places, the monks and nuns had higher mortality rates because they were providing health care.
Cervantes and Shakespeare
Though Shakespeare lived almost five hundred years ago, he spoke the same English that people speak today. Love is the same in both languages.
In England alone, about five million people lived at the same time as Shakespeare.
Shakespeare wrote in English, the same as your question and my answer.
The most romantic line in English literature, as voted by readers in a survey conducted by Mills & Boon, is "I love you not only for what you are, but for what I am when I am with you" from the novel "Royalty" by William Shakespeare.
Many many authors did. Christopher Marlowe was born in the same year as Shakespeare. Miguel de Cervantes died on the same date (but, curiously, not on the same day) as Shakespeare. Bacon, Spenser, Jonson, Descartes, and Milton all lived contemporaneously with Shakespeare.
William Shakespeare is a phenomenal contributor to the English language. It was his invention of 1700 words that have led us to change verbs to adjectives, nouns to verbs an also connect words that were never before used.
Shakespeare wrote in English. "The" means exactly the same when he used it as it does when you use it.
Shakespeare wrote in English, the same language I am using now. There is no such language as "Shakespearean language" or "Shakespeare language". It's English. A word like "then" is a building block of the English language and always means "then" when Shakespeare or any other English speaker uses it.
Most actors today are not very rich. They are struggling along with bit parts and dinner theatres, and supplementing their income by being waiters and waitresses. It was the same in Shakespeare's day. Some actors and actresses these days can get very rich indeed, but the same could happen in Shakespeare's day. Richard Burbage and Edward Alleyn were quite well-to-do and Shakespeare did not do badly. Perhaps they were not spectacularly rich, but in order to do that back then, you pretty much had to be royalty or closely connected with the royalty.
No, he lived half his life in Stratford and the other half in London.
Nobility means much the same as royalty.
A royalty payment would not be the same as a purchase. A royalty is something owed to you, gradually over time.