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First of all, this question makes the assumption or at least implies that all whites have oppressed non-whites, esp. blacks. Fair enough, except that not all Caucasian nations have done so. Assuming you are referring to the American Civil Rights Movement and the historic enslavement of African-Americans, there are a number of reasons. A sizable number of the early settlers of America were either transplanted English nobility, or gentlemen of fortune that owned thousands of acres in estates. African labor was available cheap, and in large numbers. African laborers could be made to do work not done by indentured servants or the like. So, one reason was pragmatic: the need for mass, cheap labor. Another reason lay in the general, though not universal belief that whites were created superior to the black man. It's not hard to see why: Europeans (and later Americans) were the most technologically and socially advanced people in the world, and proud of it. Africans were "simple" and "savage" by comparison. Even some like Thomas Jefferson, who did not have anything against blacks personally, believed in the superiority of whites as the created order. Reason #3 is history. By the time of the Civil War, slavery had existed in America for over a century. The southern economy, in fact, depended on agriculture, and by default, slavery. People were used to blacks being "inferior" and old habits die hard. As a sidenote, some considered belived that blacks by nature shiftless and lazy, and would never work, and thus be productive citizens, outside of slavery. However many whites genuinely believed that exposure to Western "civilized" culture did nothing but good for Africans. For the record, I am not white. I happen to be Chinese-American. Hope this helps some.

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