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Probably because the king's pay would convince judges to side with the king, making for a biased court system.

Since the Judge was being paid for by the king, he would want to rule in favor of the king.

If the judges were being paid by the King Of England, then their ruling would tend to more in the direction of the King's rule. There was no uniquely American law, as it were, in this country until 1776 when the War of Independence took place and the Bill of Rights was drafted so the law of the land was still the same as Great Britain's.

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