If you are sued in France and a judgment is obtained, it can be enforced in the U.S. through a process called "domestication" or "recognition" of foreign judgments. Generally, the plaintiff must file the French judgment in a U.S. court and demonstrate that it meets certain criteria, such as being final and not contrary to U.S. public policy. The court will then decide whether to enforce the judgment, which may involve additional hearings or legal arguments. However, enforcement can vary significantly based on state laws and the specifics of the case.
The US Sued did win.
no
Yes, in the Supreme Court case "CASTLE ROCK V. GONZALES"(See: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Castle_Rock_v._Gonzales ). A woman sued the police after she asked for the police to enforce a restraining order against her ex-husband. They wouldn't enforce it, her children got killed. She sued the police and lost.Also look into the case:"DeShaney v. Winnebago Count"
Sued for Libel - 1939 was released on: USA: 27 October 1939 France: 20 February 1946
Yes
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In the US, the executive branch has the power to enforce the law.
(in the US) ANYONE can be sued by ANYBODY for anything. Married women are not exempt.
They had a revolution
Yes
Yes. It however, depends on what are you being sued for. For example, being sued for overdue alimony is perfectly doable within the laws of both countries.
Congress can be sued. In fact, Congress has been named as a defendant in many cases. In 2009, someone sued Congress because they felt Obama was not born in the US.