In the Christian bible is there a biblical basis to ban Polygamy?

Answer 1

No exactly. Polygamy is never forbidden in the Bible, and many honored prophets of the Old Testament were open polygamists.

Most Christians today believe that polygamy is immoral, but there are a small number of Christians who preach that polygamy is Biblical and accept the practice.

Another Answer:

There are not instances of polygamy in the New Testament.

1 Corinthians 7:2-3New International Version (NIV)

2 But since sexual immorality is occurring, each man should have sexual relations with his own wife, and each woman with her own husband. 3 The husband should fulfill his marital duty to his wife, and likewise the wife to her husband.

And this strongly appears to be consistent with the Old Testament.

Genesis 2:24New International Version (NIV)

24 That is why a man leaves his father and mother and is united to his wife, and they become one flesh.

In a lack of faith, Abraham listened to his wife and had Ishmael with her servant. After his wife died, Abraham took Keturah and had 6 children. But only Isaac, the child of his wife, became the child of Promise.

Moses is said to have had two wives but no indication if this happened before or after the death of his 1st wife. Yet, because Moses was called 'God's friend' and walked with God, it can be assured that his 1st wife had died.

Indeed, all men in the OT who are called righteous only had one wife. The practice of a King, to keep peace with neighboring peoples customarily took one of the other King's daughters in marriage. King Solomon had 700 wives and 300 concubines - yet he was never called righteous and many scholars wonder if he will be judged to life or the 2nd death because of his sins.

Just like divorce which occurred, God did not intend marriage to have multiple partners.

Answer 2

First, there is simply no such thing as a Judeo - Christian bible. That is a term made up by people who are not learned in our Fathers word. Its usually used in church systems but its completely incorrect. The word Jew comes from the Greek and indicates either a member of the tribe of Judah or a resident of the area called judea. The Word was given to Moses and the prophets. Moses was of the tribe of Levi, not Judah. However the most important point is all the people and prophets and apostles who contributed to biblical text, are all Hebrew.

It is believed by many good biblical scholars, that Moses wrote the early books (First 5) known as the torah. Christ was foretold by the Prophet Isaiah and appeared as foretold in the Hebrew scrolls (text) of the temple (which became your bible of today). Christ destroyed the old temple and priesthood, which he replaced. Christ became the living word, therefor the biblical text should always be referred to as Christian. If you would like to make a historical reference it should be Hebrew - Christian and Judeo as that implies only one tribe, Judah which simply is not true.

Now about polygamy (multiple wives), Christ stated, "not one jot or tittle in the law shall be changed", The blood sacrifices were done away with by Christ's death on the cross and that is documented in the text of Hebrews 10 and Colossians 2 However there is absolutely no reference in the new testament that I am aware of which states any other part of the law given in leviticus was done away with.

Many countries and states outlaw more than one wife, but as far as I am aware, there was no change by Christ to eliminate the levitical law concerning a man and his wife or wives. One must however meet the other conditions in the law concerning a husband when he takes one to wife, its not simply a one way street. The word wives is even plural in chapter 5 of the book of Ephesians.

Answer 3

Never forbibden