1. The second wife is entitled to attend the bigamy hearing for the husband, because in America bigamy is illegal.
2. 1st, 2nd whatever wife is no different; it would depend upon your state's provisioning for spouses in a divorce. (was there a prenuptial agreement? do you live in a community property state?) etc. it depends on the law in your state not on which number wife it is. A wife is a wife in a divorce & the order is not a matter that concerns the court each wife is the only one who matters when before the judge.
If the 1st wife is getting alimony, etc. that would have a bearing on what is available to the 2nd wife; even if it means the 1st wife's alimony would have to be adjusted to accommodate the 2nd wife's alimony. Or the 2nd wife get nothing because its already alocated to the 1st wife in an iron-clad entitlement.
Many variables here, so an attorney would be better able to advise you in your particular instance.
If the property is owned jointly, the wife is entitled to 50% of the proceeds.If the property is owned jointly, the wife is entitled to 50% of the proceeds.If the property is owned jointly, the wife is entitled to 50% of the proceeds.If the property is owned jointly, the wife is entitled to 50% of the proceeds.
She will be entitled to what is her share legally.
NO
If you are not legally separated or divorced, your wife will still be entitled to anything you own. You should seek a lawyer for specific legal advice.
all
That's between the two of you. your entitled to at least half of everything.
No she will no longer be covered
Yes
If the wife is not named as a beneficiary then she would have no claim on the policy proceeds.
There are any number : entitled, determined, independent.
Not if you lived in America
The same as if she has not been having an afair.