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The U.S. Constitution as drafted in 1787 did not specify eligibility requirements for voting. It left that power to the states. Therefore each state could have different requirements for voter eligibility.
What else can I help you with?
Who were the only citizens allowed to vote when our country's government started and why?
The US Constitution does not discuss voting eligibility (except to prohibit discrimination based on race or sex) - States determine this. In general, only white males age 21+ who had at least some property/assets were allowed to vote.
Whose job is it to determine eligibility for voting?
The responsibility varies from country to country.
What does the constitution say about the voting rights of aliens?
Nothing. The voting rights provisions of the Constitution (in the 14th, 15th, 19th, 24th, and 26th Amendments) all expressly guarantee voting rights for "citizens of the United States." Noncitizens therefore have no voting rights under the Constitution.
What impact did the expansion of voting rights have on american democracy?
The only democracy the United States has is the act of voting. The United States of America is a Constitutional Republic with very limited democracy. The only real impact of voting expansion, was people who were not allowed to vote, were now able to vote.
Which amendment removed from the states of power to determine voting qualifications based on gender?
Amendment 19
Could poor men vote in 1792?
In 1792, voting rights in the United States were largely restricted to white male property owners. Many states required voters to own a certain amount of land or property, effectively disenfranchising poor men regardless of their race. While some states allowed a broader interpretation of eligibility, the general trend favored property ownership as a prerequisite for voting. Thus, poor men typically could not vote in most states during that time.
When members of the constitutional convention talked about American citizens voting did they only mean white men?
No. When the members of the Constitutional Convention discussed American citizens voting, they deliberately left the question of voting eligibility to the states. They did not decide on men or women, black or white. That was a question for the states. One criticism of the constitution was that it did not prevent a woman from becoming president.
Is the first lady allowed to vote for the election?
Yes, the First Lady of the United States is allowed to vote in elections. Like any other citizen, she is eligible to cast her vote during federal, state, and local elections. The eligibility to vote is not restricted based on the individual's relationship to the President.
One reason that more people voted in 1828 than in 1824 could be that .?
the voting laws of the western states allowed any white man over the age 21 to vote
What kind of tax has to be paid in order for a person to vote?
In the United States, there is no tax that must be paid specifically in order to vote. The Voting Rights Act of 1965 abolished poll taxes, which were fees that some states required voters to pay as a prerequisite for voting. Today, voting eligibility is primarily based on citizenship, residency, and age rather than financial contributions.
Can felons vote in the United States?
In the United States, the laws regarding felons' voting rights vary by state. Some states allow felons to vote after they have completed their sentence, while others permanently restrict their voting rights. It is important to check the specific laws in your state to determine the voting rights of felons.
This amendment removed from the states the power to determine voting qualifications based on gender?
The 19th Amendment to the constitution removed from the states the power to base voting rights on gender. This amendment allowing women's suffrage was ratified in 1920.
